# Quiz – 390

### Quant Quiz

Directions (Q. 1 – 5): Study the following table carefully and answer the questions given below:

 Plan I(Simple Interest) II(Simple Interest) III(Compounded annually) IV(Compounded annually) Principle Rs. 30,000 Rs……… Rs. 20,000 Rs. 45,000 Term 48 months 30 months 24 months ………months Interest rate ………..% 7.5% 9% 12.50% Interest Rs. 13200 Rs. 6562.5 Rs……….. Rs. 5625

Q1. Suppose the interest rate of plan III is changed to that of plan I, how much more or less one can earn as interest on a principle amount of Rs. 20,000?
1) Rs. 1229 more                 2) Rs. 880 more                 3) Rs. 939 more                4) Rs. 899 less                5) Rs. 989 less

Q2. If the investment term under plan IV is tripled, what will be the approximate interest earned under the new plan?
1) Rs. 19072.27                 2) Rs. 19,585.70                 3) Rs. 18,955.70                 4) Rs. 16,575.90                 5) Rs. 20,585.90

Q3. After maturity of plan II if the amount along with interest is reinvested in plan I what will be the maturity amount after a period of 24 months?
1) Rs. 47,500. 95                    2) Rs. 47806.75                 3) Rs. 50706.25                 4) Cannot be determined
5) Other than given options

Q4. What is the ratio between interests earned under plan III (compounded annually) and plan III (if the interest is not compounded)?
1) 168 : 163                 2) 201 : 209                 3) 211 : 219                 4) 209 : 200                 5) 219 : 210

Q5. A minimum for how many months should one invest Rs. 45,000 in plan IV so that the interest earned is not less than Rs. 11950?
1) 48                 2) 38                 3) 32                 4) 24                 5) 12

Q6. The average weight of three men J, K and L is 75 kg. Another man M joins the group and the average now becomes 78 kg. If another man N whose weight is 5 kg less than that of M, replace J then the average weight of K, L, M and N becomes 77 kg. Find the weight of J.
1) 84 kg                 2) 88 kg                 3) 86 kg                 4) 90 kg                 5) Other than given options

Q7. In how many ways a committee of 6 members can be selected from 6 men and 5 women, consisting of 4 men and 2 women?
1) 150                 2) 200                 3) 175                 4) Other than given options                5) 180

Q8. There are 50 buckets and 50 persons. Person 1 keeps one ball in every bucket, person 2 keeps two balls in every 2nd bucket, person three keeps 3 balls in every third bucket. This process goes on till 50th person keeps 50 balls in 50th bucket. Find the total number of balls kept in 50th bucket.
1) 85                 2) 90                 3) 92                 4) 93                 5) 81

Q9. Ten years ago the average age of a family of four members was 28 years. Two children have been born, the present average age of family is same. What are the present ages of the children if the age difference between both the children is 2 years?
1) 7 & 9 years                 2) 6 & 8 years                 3) 7 & 5 years                 4) Other than given options                 5) 6 & 4 years

Q10. In an examination, every candidate took German or English or both subjects as a language paper. 76.5% of the candidates took German and 48.7% took English. If the total number of candidates appeared in the examination is 3250, then how many candidates took both the subjects?
1) 819                 2) 835                 3) 845                 4) 865                 5) 910

1. 2;

Interest earned under default plan III = Rs. 3762

Interest rate of plan I = 11%

Interest earned under plan III at 11% p.a. compounded

annually

= 20000 (1 + 11/100)^2 – 20000 = Rs. 4642

Difference in interest earned = 4642 – 3762 = Rs. 880 more

1. 1

Original term is 12 and when it is tripled it becomes 36

months

Interest on Rs. 45,000 @ 12.50% p.a (compounded annually) for 36 months is

= 45000 (1 + 12.5/100)^3 – 45000 = 19072.27

1. 3

Maturity amount of plan II = 35000 + 6562.5

= Rs. 41562.5

Rs. 41562.5 deposited for 2 years in plan I gives

= [ 1 + (2 * 11)/100 ] * 41562.5 = Rs. 50706.25

1. 4

Interest earned under plan III (Compounded annually)

= Rs. 3762

Interest earned under plan III (If the interest is not

compounded) = (20000 * 2 * 9)/100 = Rs. 3600

Required ratio = 3762 : 3600 = 209 : 200

1. 4

Investment of Rs. 45000 in plan will earn in 24 months

= 45000 ( 1 + 12.5/100)^2 – 45000 = Rs. 11953.125

1. 3

Total weight of J, K and L = 75 × 3 = 225 kg

Total weight of J, K, L and M = 78 × 4 = 312 kg

Weight of M = 312 – 225 = 87 kg

Weight of N = 87 – 5 = 82 kg

Total weight of K, L, M & N = 77 × 4 = 308 kg

Total weight of K, L & M = 308 – 82 = 226 kg

Weight of J = weight of (J, K, L and M) – weight of (K,

L and M)

= 312 – 226 = 86 kg

1. 1

Required number of ways = 6C4 × 5C2 = 6*5/2 * 5*4/2 = 150

1. 4

1st person, 2ndperson, 5th person, 10th person, 25th

person & 50th person will put balls in the 50th bucket.

So number of balls in the 50th bucket

= 1 + 2 + 5 + 10+ 25 + 50 = 93

1. 1

Ten years ago, total age of four members = 28 × 4 = 112 years

Total age of four members at present = (28 + 10) ×4 = 152 years

And present age of four members + two children = 28 × 6 = 168 years

So age of the two children = 168 – 152 =16

So age of 1st child = 9 years

And age of 2nd child= 7 years

1. 1; Let total number of candidates be = 100

Number of candidates who took both German and English = (76.5 + 48.7) – 100 = 25.2

i.e. 100 units —> 3250

25.2 units —> 3250/100 * 25.2 = 819

### Reasoning Quiz

Directions (1-5): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Dinesh, Ritesh, Raman, Gautam, Payal, Pihu, Sumit and Aman are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre, but not necessarily in the same order. Dinesh is an immediate neighbour of Aman, but not an immediate neighbour of Payal. Ritesh is on the immediate right of Pihu and fourth to the left of Dinesh. Raman is an immediate neighbour of Payal but not that of Pihu or Dinesh. Sumit is an immediate neighbour of neither Aman nor Gautam. Payal is not an immediate neighbour of Sumit.

Q1. Who among the following are immediate neighbours of Gautam?
(a) Aman and Dinesh                 (b) Pihu and Aman                 (c) Ritesh and Pihu                 (d) Can’t be determined
(e) None of these

Q2. In which of the following pairs is the first person sitting on the immediate right of the second person?
(a) Gautam, Dinesh                 (b) Ritesh, Pihu                 (c) Sumit, Dinesh                 (d) Raman, Pihu                 (e) None of these

Q3. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
(a) Ritesh is on the immediate left of Payal.                 (b) Gautam is on the immediate right of Aman.
(c) Dinesh is third to the right of Raman.                 (d) All are true                (e) None of these

Q4. In which of the following groups is the second person sitting between the first and the third person?
(a) Aman — Pihu — Sumit                 (b) Gautam —Aman — Dinesh                 (c) Ritesh — Raman — Payal
(d)Payal — Pihu — Ritesh                (e) None of these

Q5. Who among the following sits opposite Raman?
(a) Pihu                 (b) Sumit                 (c) Dinesh                 (d) Gautam                 (e) None of these

Directions (6 – 10): Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below:
Seven persons Swati, Sneha, Seena, Shanu, Sunil, Shiva and Sristi are sitting in a straight line facing north, but not necessarily in the same order. There is only one person between Swati and Seena, and only one person between Sneha and Sristi. Seena sits between Sunil and Sneha. Sristi sits between Shiva and Shanu. Shiva does not sit on the right of Shanu. Swati sits on the left of Sneha but does not sit on the immediate left.

Q6. How many persons are there between Swati and Shanu?
(a) Two                 (b) Three                 (c) Four                 (d) Five                 (e) None of these

Q7. Who among the following is on the immediate right of Sneha?
(a) Shanu                 (b) Shiva                 (c) Sristi                (d) Seena                (e) None of these

Q8. Which of the following pairs sits at the extreme ends of the row?
(a) Sunil, Swati                 (b) Sunil, Sristi                 (c) Swati, Shanu                (d) Sneha, Shanu                 (e) None of these

Q9. Who among the following sits third to the right of Sunil?
(a) Shiva                 (b) Sneha                 (c) Sristi                (d) Shanu                (e) None of these

Q10. Who among the following sits third to the left of Sneha?
(a) Sristi                 (b) Seena                 (c) Shanu                 (d) Swati                (e) None of these

1.b        2.b        3.c        4.b        5.d        6.d        7.b        8.c        9.a        10.d

### English Quiz

Directions (Q.1-10) Each of the reading comprehension questions is based on the content of a passage. After reading the passage, answer all questions pertaining to it on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. For each question, select the best answer of the choices given.
According to economic signaling theory, consumers may perceive the frequency with which an unfamiliar brand is advertised as a cue that the brand is of high quality. The notion that highly advertised brands are associated with high‑quality products does have some Empirical evidence. Marquardt and McGann found that heavily advertised products did indeed rank high on certain measures of product quality. Because large advertising expenditures represent a significant investment on the part of a manufacturer, only companies that expect to recoup these costs in the long run, through consumers’ repeat purchases of the product, can afford to spend such amounts. However, two studies by Kirmani have found that although consumers initially perceive expensive advertising as a signal of high brand quality, at some level of spending the manufacturer’s advertising effort may be perceived as unreasonably high, implying low manufacturer confidence in product quality. If consumers perceive excessive advertising effort as a sign of a manufacturer’s desperation, the result may be less favorable brand perceptions. In addition, the third study by Kirmani, of print advertisements, found that
the use of color affected consumer perception of brand quality. Because consumers recognize that color advertisements are more expensive than black and white, the point at which repetition of an advertisement is perceived as excessive comes sooner for a color advertisement than for a black-and-white advertisement.

Q1. Which of the following best describes the purpose of the sentences written in bold and italics?
(A) To show that economic signaling theory fails to explain a finding
(B) To introduce a distinction not accounted for by economic signaling theory
(C) To account for an exception to a generalization suggested by Marquardt and McGann
(D) To explain why Marquardt and McGann’s research was conducted
(E) To offer an explanation for an observation reported by Marquardt and McGann

Q2. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) present findings that contradict one explanation for the effects of a particular advertising practice
(B) argue that theoretical explanations about the effects of a particular advertising practice are of limited value without empirical evidence
(C) discuss how and why particular advertising practices may affect consumers’ perceptions
(D) contrast the research methods used in two different studies of a particular advertising practice
(E) explain why a finding of consumer responses to a particular advertising practice was unexpected

Q3. Kirmani’s research, as described in the passage, suggests which of the following regarding consumers’ expectations about the quality of advertised products?
(A) Those expectations are likely to be highest if a manufacturer runs both black-and-white and color advertisements for the same product.
(B) Those expectations can be shaped by the presence of color in an advertisement as well as by the frequency with which an advertisement appears.
(C) Those expectations are usually high for frequently advertised new brands but not for
(D) Those expectations are likely to be higher for products whose black-and-white advertisements are often repeated than for those whose color advertisements are less often repeated.
(E) Those expectations are less definitively shaped by the manufacturer’s advertisements than by information that consumers gather from other sources.

Q4. Kirmani’s third study, as described in the passage, suggests which of the following conclusions about a black-and-white advertisement?
(A) It can be repeated more frequently than a comparable color advertisement could before consumers begin to suspect low manufacturer confidence in the quality of the advertised product.
(B) It will have the greatest impact on consumers’ perceptions of the quality of the advertised product if it appears during periods when a color version of the same advertisement is also being used.
(C) It will attract more attention from readers of the print publication in which it appears if it is used only a few times.
(D) It may be perceived by some consumers as more expensive than a comparable color advertisement.
(E) It is likely to be perceived by consumers as a sign of higher manufacturer confidence in the quality of the advertised product than a comparable color advertisement would be.

Q5. The passage suggests that Kirmani would be most likely to agree with which of the following statements about consumers’ perceptions of the relationship between the frequency with which a product is advertised and the product’s quality?
(B) Because most consumers do not notice the frequency of advertisement, it has little impact
on most consumers’ expectations regarding product quality.
(D) The frequency of advertisement is not always perceived by consumers to indicate that manufacturers are highly confident about their products’ quality.
(E) Consumers who try a new product that has been frequently advertised are likely to perceive the advertisement’s frequency as having been an accurate indicator of the product’s quality.

Q6. What does the phrase mean ‘Empirical Evidence’ as used in the given paragraph?
(A) It means to destroy the evidence
(B) It represents the utopian phenomenon
(C) Empirical evidence is information acquired by observation or experimentation.
(D) Empirical evidence is factual, concrete and data based information.
(E) None of these.

Q7. what does the word ‘Recoup’ meant in this paragraph?
(A) obsolete information
B) lost in translation
(C) having acquired a lot of knowledge
(D) regain (money spent) through subsequent profits.
(E) None of these.

Directions (Q.8-10): In each of the following questions, five options are given, of which one word is the most nearly the same or opposite in meaning to the given word in the question. Find the correct option having either same or opposite meaning.

Q8.PERILOUS
(A) Benign                (B) brazen                (C)  bucolic                (D) treacherous                (E)  reiterate

Q9. NASCENT
(A) deplete                (B) cavil                (C) gluttony                (D) initial                (E)  whim

Q10. PROSCRIBE
(A) Allow                (B) prone                (C) intrepid                (D)mural                (E) doleful

1.e         2.c         3.b         4.a         5.d         6.c         7.d         8.d         9.d         10.a

### Computer Quiz

Q1. Which of the following is most oriented to scientific programming?
(a) FORTRAN                (b) COBOL                (c) BASIC                (d) PYTHON                (e) RUBY

Q2. What is DROPBOX?
(a) File hosting service                (b) Android Development platform                (c) Web Browser
(d) Operating System                (e) None of the above

Q3. All Android phones and iPhones have access to a SQL (pronounced ‘sequel’) database called_______
(a) SQLite                (b) MySQL                (c) PostgreSQL                 (d) Microsoft SQL                 (e) All of the above.

Q4._____is the the scripting language of the World Wide Web and is built right into all major web browsers including Internet Explorer, FireFox and Safari.
(a) HTML                (b) Flash player                (c) Javascript                (d) Adobe                (e) Python

Q5.______is the  a relatively new programming language designed by Microsoft for a wide range of enterprise applications that run on the .NET Framework.
(a) RUBY on RAILS                (b) PYTHON                (c) JAVA                (d) C#(pronounced C-sharp)                 (e) None of these

Q6. Python is a general purpose programming language . Python is simple and incredibly readable since closely resembles the English language.
Who developed Python?
(a) Guido van Rossum                (b) Jack python                (c) Elon Musk                (d) Dennis Ritchie                (e) Steve Jobs

Q7._______is a scripting language, running on the server, which can be used to create web pages written in HTML.
(a) PHP (Hypertext Pre-Processor)                 (b) Javascript                (c) Android                (d) Adobe                (e) None of the above.

Q8._____general purpose programming language, though it is best known for its use in web programming, and _____ serves as a framework for the Ruby Language.
(a) Java,IDE                (b) C#,C++                (c) Javascript,Java                (d) Ruby,Rails                (e) None of the above

Q9. In 2014, Apple decided to invent their own programming language.What is the programming language called?
(a) Cyanogen                (b) Ruby                (c) Swift                (d) Oxygen                (e) None of these

Q10.Which among the following is not an Object Oriented Programming Language?
(a) Python                (b) PASCAL                (c) Java                (d) C++                (e) Ruby

Q11._____is the process of affecting the visibility of a website or a web page in a web search engine’s unpaid results—often referred to as “natural”, “organic”, or “earned” results.
(a) SEO            (b) ESO            (c) IEEE            (d) HTTPS            (e) None of the above

Q12.A______is a combination of a private cloud combined with the use of public cloud services where one or several touch points exist between the environments.
(a) Hybrid Cloud            (b) Dynamic cloud             (c) Sharing cloud            (d) Compressed cloud            (e) None of the above

Q13.____ cloud is a type of cloud computing that delivers similar advantages to public cloud, including scalability and self-service, but through a proprietary architecture.
(a) Private            (b) public            (c) distributed            (d) hybrid            (e) None of the above

Q14. Which among the following is a recently debated principle that Internet service providers and governments regulating the Internet should treat all data on the Internet the same, not discriminating or charging differentially by user, content, website, platform, application, type of attached equipment, or mode of communication?
(a) Comcast            (b) Net Neutrality            (c) Oblique-net            (d) Net Fraternity            (e) Fair Web

Q15. Which among the following is an important circuitry in a computer system that directs the operation of the processor?
(a) Memory            (b) Address Bus            (c) Accumulator            (d) ALU            (e) Control Unit

S1. Ans.(a)
Sol.FORTRAN stands for Formula Translator.

S2. Ans.(a)
Sol.Dropbox is a file hosting service operated by American company Dropbox, Inc., headquartered in San Francisco, California, that offers cloud storage, file synchronization, personal cloud, and client software.

S3. Ans.(a)
Sol. SQLite is an in-process library that implements a self-contained, serverless, zero-configuration, transactional SQL database engine. The code for SQLite is in the public domain and is thus free for use for any purpose, commercial or private. SQLite is a compact library.

S4. Ans.(c)
Sol. JavaScript – not to be confused with Java – is another one of the world’s most popular and powerful programming languages, and is used to spice up web pages by making them interactive.For example, JavaScript can be used to add effects to web pages, display pop-up messages or to create games with basic functionality.

S5. Ans.(d)
Sol. An evolution of C and  C++, the C# language is simple, modern, type safe and object oriented.

S6. Ans.(a)
Sol. Python is based on object oriented programming concepts.

S7. Ans.(a)
Sol.Created by Danish-Canadian programmer Rasmus Lerdorf in 1994, PHP was never actually intended to be a new programming language. Instead, it was created to be a set of tools to help Rasmus maintain his Personal Home Page (PHP).

S8. Ans.(d)
Sol. Ruby on Rails has many positive qualities including rapid development, you don’t need as much code, and there are a wide variety of 3rd party libraries available

S9. Ans.(c)
Sol. Swift – a new programming language for iOS and OS X developers to create their Apps.

S10. Ans.(b)
Sol.Pascal is an imperative and procedural programming language, which Niklaus Wirth designed in 1968–69 and published in 1970, as a small, efficient language .Paradigm‎: ‎Imperative‎; ‎Structured

S11. Ans.(a)
Sol. SEO is short for Search Engine Optimization

S12. Ans.(a)
Sol. The goal is to combine services and data from a variety of cloud models to create a unified, automated, and well-managed computing environment.

S13. Ans.(a)
Sol.  Unlike public clouds, which deliver services to multiple organizations, a private cloud is dedicated to a single organization.

S14. Ans.(b)
Sol. Net Neutrality means an Internet that enables and protects free speech. It means that Internet service providers should provide us with open networks — and should not block or discriminate against any applications or content that ride over those networks.

S15. Ans.(e)
Sol. The Control Unit (CU) is digital circuitry contained within the processor that coordinates the sequence of data movements into, out of, and between a processor’s many sub-units.