Quant Quiz

Directions (Q. 1-5): Study the following table carefully to answer these questions:
Percentage of marks obtained by six students in six subjects

Q1. What is the total marks obtained by F in all the subjects together?
1) 422                 2) 366.4                3) 384                4) 408.2                5) None of these

Q2. What is the overall percentage of marks obtained by C in all subjects? (rounded off to two digits after decimal)
1)  72.66                2) 72                3) 73.77                4) 73                5) None of these

Q3. What is the percentage of marks obtained by A in Zoology and Botany together?
1)  68.4                2) 69.5                3) 64.8                4) 69.8                5) None of these

Q4. What is the average marks obtained by all the students in Maths out of 150?
1) 109.75                2) 83.67                3) 79.83                4) 119.75                5) None of these

Q5. What is the average percentage of marks obtained by all students in English?
1)  66                2) 39                3) 48                4) 62                5) None of these

Directions (Q. 6-10): There question are based on the following graph:

Q6. If the average number of students appeared from all the states in 2002 was 16785, what was the average number of students passed in that year?
1) 8125                2) 8872                3) 8512                4) Cannot be determined                5) None of these

Q7. If the number of students appeared in 2002 and 2003 from State B was in the ratio 3 : 4 respectively , what was the respective ratio of passed students in these two years?
1)  11 : 20                2) 17 : 20                3) 7 : 10                4) 27 : 40                 5) None of these

Q8. If the total number of student appeared from State E in the two years together was 45,000 and the number of students passed in 2002 was 13750, what was the number of students passed in 2003?
1)  11000                2) 12500                3) 12000                4) Can’t be determined                5) None of these

Q9. Number of students passed in 2003 from the states F and G was in the ratio of 7 : 5 respectively. What was the respective ratio of the number of students appeared from these states?
1) 11 : 10                2) 77 : 50                3) 50 : 77                4) 10 : 11                5) None of these

Q10. If the number of  students appeared from each of the states D and E in 2003 was 22500, what was the total number of students passed from these two states together in that year?
1)  25875                2) 12838                3) 13500                4) 27000                5) None of these

Reasoning Quiz

Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers it rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of an input and its rearrangement.
Input: far east 37 49 27 ox dusk 39 ink 42
Step I: east far 37 49 ox dusk 39 ink 42 27
Step II: east ink far 49 ox dusk 39 42 27 37
Step III: east ink ox far 49 dusk 42 27 37 39
Step IV: east ink ox dusk far 49 27 37 39 42
Step V: east ink ox dusk far 27 37 39 42 49
And step V is the last step of the above input. As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out the appropriate steps for the given input.
Input: 69 post ogle 52 49 array kite upper 42 58 stare 63

Q1. What is the position of ‘upper’ in step II?
1) Fifth from the right                 2) Third from the right                 3) Fifth from the left                4) Sixth from the left
5) Other than given options

Q2. Which step would be the following output?
array ogle upper 69 post kite 58 stare 63 42 49 52
1) Step III                 2) Step IV                 3) Step V                 4) Step VI                 5) Other than given options

Q3. Which of the following word/number would be at the seventh position from the right in the last step?
1) stare                 2) 69                 3) post                 4) 49                 5) ogle

Q4. How many steps will be required to complete the arrangement of the above input?
1) Five                 2) Six                 3) Seven                 4) Eight                 5) Other than given options

Q5. Which word/number will be fifth to the left of ’58’ in step III?
1) array                 2) ogle                 3) 49                 4) post                 5) 42

Q6. Diya ranks 5th from the top in a class of 53 students. What is her rank from the bottom in the class?
1) 47th                 2) 48th                 3) 49th                 4) 50th                 5) 46th

Q7. If N = 6, U =4, M = 8, B = 24, then which of the given values can replace the question mark (?) in the following?
B × N ÷ M + U = ?
1) 8                 2) 16                 3) 36                 4) 28                 5) 22

Directions: In each question below is given a statement followed by two argument numbered I and II. You have to decide by two the argument is a strong argument and which one is a weak argument.
In making decision about important questions, it is desirable to distinguish between “strong” argument and “weak” argument as they relate to the question. “Strong” arguments are those which are both important and are directly related to the question. “Weak” arguments are those which are of minor importance and also may not be directly related to question and may be related to a trivial aspect of the question.
1) If only argument I is strong.                 2) If only argument II is strong.                3) If either argument I or II is strong.
4) If neither argument I nor II is strong.                5) If both arguments I and II are strong.

Q8. Statement: Should Indian government stop sending help to earthquake in Nepal?
Argument:
I. Yes, it is unnecessary expenditure of Indian Government.
II. No, it helps us to build better relationship with neighbour countries.

Q9. Statement: Should all the political parties come under the Jan LokPal Bill?
Argument:
I. No, political system at Nation far from judicial system.
II. Yes, it will help to bring the transparency of collecting funds and its maintenance of member of parties.

Q10. Statement: In big cities is there need of opening Government added colleges?
Argument:
I. No, big cities population constantly increasing over the previous years, so there is a need of more colleges.
II. Yes, it will help to make more educated citizens of cities.

Q11. Statement: Government has privatised higher level institutes of Technology.
Which of the following points can be a probable cause according to the statement?
1) Government is trying to make these institutes financially independent.
2) Privatisation is the need of the new era and we can’t survive without it.
3) Both 1) and 2)
4) Neither 1) nor 2)
5) Other than given options

Q12. Statement: Indian top officials working in abroad be called back to India.
Which of the following argument will be definitely false according to the statement?
1) They must serve the motherland first and forget about honours, facilities, discoveries and all.
2) We have enough talented officers; let them stay where they want.
3) Both 1) and 2)
4) Neither 1) nor 2)
5) Other than given options

English Quiz

Directions(Q 1-5): A part of the sentence is underlined. Below are given alternatives to the underlined part at (A), (B), (C), (D) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed your answer is (E).

Q1. I have never and probably never will write good letters.

1. I have never written               2. I have never wrote                     3. I never have written                       4. I had never write

5. No Improvement

Q2. I haven’t hardly studied for this examination.

1. Hardly I have studied                 2. I have hardly studied                  3. Not hardly I have studied                  4. I studied not hardly

5. No Improvement

Q3. He asked for the cup of tea

1. some cup of tea                2. cup of tea                    3. a cup of tea                  4. an tea of cup                  5. No Improvement

Q4. Gopal is two years older than his brother.

1. than own brother                2. to his brother                3. by his brother                  4. then own brother                  5. No Improvement

Q5. I look forward to meet you in Delhi.

1. to meeting you                  2. to meet with you                 3. at meeting you                  4. for meet you                  5. No Improvement

Directions(Q.6-15): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. If there is ‘No error’, the answer is ‘E’.

Q6. Don’t talk to him, he always remains in temper these days.

1. Don’t talk to him                   2. he always                  3. remains in temper                  4. these days.                  5. No Error

Q7. In My opinion it is not the failures that have made him lose the heart but the lack of emotional support.

1. In My opinion it is not the failures               2. that have made                   3. him lose the heart but the lack of

4. emotional support.                 5. No Error

Q8. The most happy marriage would be a union of a deaf man to a blind woman.

1. The most happy               2. marriage would be                   3. a union of a deaf                  4. man to a blind woman.                  5. No Error.

Q9. His Father forbade him to go to cinema late at night.

1. His Father                2. forbade him to go                 3. to cinema                  4. late at night.                  5. No Error

Q10. There was little milk in the bottle and she gave it to the baby when it started weeping.

1. There was little                 2. milk in the bottle and she gave it                    3. to the baby when it                   4. started weeping.                  5. No Error

Q11. Despite of working hard for the exam he failed.

1. Despite of                   2. working hard                   3. for the exam                  4. he failed.                  5. No Error

Q12. The court held the local MLA responsible for the loss or damage to any public property.

1. The court held               2. the local MLA responsible                 3. for the loss or damage                  4. to any public property                  5. No Error

Q13. He had a suspected fracture,so he was admitted into the hospital.

1. He had a suspected fracture,              2. so he was                    3. admitted into                  4. the hospital                  5. No error

Q14. Those who are in power have to be sensitive of the sufferings of the poor.

1. Those who are in power                 2. have to be                    3. sensitive of                  4. the sufferings of the poor.                  5. No Error

Q15. There is no rule regarding the length of a precis with relation to that of the original passage.

1. There is no rule                 2. regarding the length of a precis                3. with relation to                4. that of the original passage.             5. No Error

Computer Quiz

Q1. CPU is the ______ of computer.  
(a) Brain               (b) Eye               (c) Ear               (d) All above these               (e) None of these

Q2. IBM-PC is an example of
(a) First generation computer               (b) Second generation computer                 (c) Third generation computer
(d) Fourth generation computer               (e) None of these

Q3. Today’s RAM’s common form is built with
(a) Transistors               (b) Vacuum tubes               (c) Semiconductor’s ICs               (d) Superconductor’s ICs          (e) None of the above

Q4. The name for the way that computers manipulate data into information is called:
(a) Programming               (b) Storing               (c) Organizing               (d) Processing               (e) None of these

Q5. _____ are classified on the basis of number of transistor.  
(a) RAM               (b) CPU               (c) SMPS               (d) IC               (e) None of these

Q6. A ______ is the enclosure that contains the main components of a computer.  
(a) System unit               (b) UPS               (c) SMPS               (d) Keyboard               (e) None of these

Q7. PCs are considered fourth-generation and contain  
(a) Information               (b) Data               (c) Vacuum tubes               (d) Microprocessors               (e) Transistors

Q8. The CPU, also called the _____ when talking about PCs does the vast majority of the processing for a computer.  
(a) Macro-processor               (b) RAM               (c) Memory System               (d) Microprocessor               (e) None of these

Q9. The insert, cap lock and num lock are all examples of ______ keys.   
(a) Control               (b) Function               (c) Toggle               (d) Shortcut               (e) None of these

Q10. Which of the following devices can be used to directly input printed text?  
(a) DPI               (b) OCR               (c) OMR               (d) MICR               (e) None of the above

Q11. ______ printer generates character from a grid.  
(a) Laser                (b) Inkjet               (c) Dot matrix               (d) All of these               (e) None of these

Q12. The OMR is able to evaluable only those documents which are printed within ______ position.  
(a) Marked               (b) Magnetic               (c) Special               (d) Specific

Q13. The terminal device that functions as a cash register, computer terminal and OCR reader is the
(a) Data collection terminal               (b) OCR register terminal               (c) Video display terminal               (d) POS terminal
(e) None of the above

Q14. What are the two types of output devices?
(a) Monitor and printer               (b) Storage disk (floppy, CD)               (c) Keyboard and Mouse               (d) Windows 2000, Windows NT               (e) None of the above

Q15. A gigabyte is equal to – 
(a) 1024 bytes               (b) Million megabytes               (c) Thousand kilobytes               (d) 1024 megabytes               (e) None of these