Quiz – 305

Quant Quiz

Directions: What value should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following questions?
Q1. 99 50/51 * 561 = ?
1) 57089              2) 54089              3) 56089             4) 56099             5) 56182

Q2. 114 % of 250 + 124 % of 450 = ?
1) 833              2) 843              3) 923              4) 823              5) 943

Q3. 1/(21/5) + 1/(32/5) = ?
1) 41/105              2) 44/105              3) 47/110              4) 43/107              5) 43/105

Directions: Each question below is followed by two statements A and B. You have to determine whether the data given in the statement are sufficient to answer the question. You should use the data and your knowledge of mathematics to choose between the possible answers. Give answer
1) if the statement A alone is sufficient to answer the question, but the statement B alone is not sufficient.
2) if the statement B alone is sufficient to answer the question, but the statement A alone is not sufficient.
3) if the both statement A and B together are needed to answer the question.
4) if either the statement A alone or B alone is sufficient to answer the question.
5) if you cannot get the answer from the statements A and B together, but needed even more data.

Q4. What would have been the selling price per kg of sugar?
I. 80 kg of sugar was purchased at Rs. 5200 and Rs. 400 were spent on transport.
II. Profit earned on selling would be 15%.

Q5. What is the volume of a cube?
I. The area of each face of the cube is 81 m^2.
II. The length of one side of the cube is 9 m.

Q6. What is the speed of a boat in still water?
I. The downstream speed of the boat is three times the upstream speed of the boat.
II. The sum of upstream and downstream speeds of the boat is 16 kmph.

Q7. The number obtained by interchanging the two digits of a two-digit number is less than the original number by 36. If the sum of the two digits of the number is 8, then what is the original number?
1) 26              2) 53             3) 62              4) 35              5) 71

Q8. The distance between two stations S1 and S2 is 640 km. A train J starts at 5 pm from S1 and moves towards S2 at an average speed of 80 km/h. Another train K starts from S2 at 4 : 20 pm and moves towards S1 at an average speed of 100 km/hr. How far from S1 will the two trains meet?
1) 248.18 km              2) 278.48 km              3) 276.38 km              4) 254.81 km             5) 268.18 km

Q9. Aashi had Rs. 20,000 with her out of this money she lent some money to Anshul for 4 years at 20% p.a. simple interest. She lent the remaining money to Rajat for an equal number of years at the rate of 24% p.a. After 4 years, Aashi found that Anshul had given her Rs. 864 more as interest as compared to Rajat. The amount of money which Aashi had lent to Rajat must be.
1) Rs. 10,600              2) Rs. 11,400              3) Rs. 8600              4) Rs. 10,400              5) Rs. 9600

Q10. A 280-m-long train takes 20 sec to cross a person who is going in the same direction with the speed of 6 km/h. After crossing that person, the train can reach next station in 45 min. How long will that person take to reach the station after being crossed by train?
1) 7 hr 3 min              2) 6 hr 3 min              3) 7 hr 30 min              4) 7 hr 50 min              5) 6 hr 30 min

Answer & Explanation
  1. 3

? = (100 – 1/51) * 561 = 56089

 

  1. 2

? = 114/100 * 250 + 124/100 * 450

= 285 + 558 = 843

 

  1. 5

? = 5/21 + 6/35

= (25 + 18)/105 = 43/105

 

  1. 3

From statement A,

Total CP of 80 kg = (5200 + 400) = Rs. 5600

 

From statement B, profit = 15%

Combining both the statement A and B, we get

 

SP = 115/100 * 5600 = Rs. 6440

SP per kg of sugar = 6440/80 = Rs. 80.5

 

  1. 4;

Let edge of the cube be a metre.

From statement A;

a^2 = 81

a = 9 m

Volume = a^3 = 93 = 729 m^3

 

From statement B,

a = 9 m

Volume = a3 = 93 = 729 m3

 

  1. 2

From statement B,

Speed of boat in still water = 1/2 * 16 = 8 km/hr

 

  1. 3

Let the original number be 10x + y

(10x + y) – (10y + x) = 36

9x – 9y = 36

x – y = 4 and x + y = 8

x = 6; y = 2

The original number = 62

 

  1. 4

Let two trains meet at x km from station S1

 

Time taken by K to cover (640 – x) km – Time taken by J to cover x km.

40/60 = 2/3

(640 – x)/100 – x/80 = 40/60

x = 6880/ = 254.81 km

 

  1. 3

Let the money lent to Anshul be Rs. x

 

Then, money lent to Rajat = Rs. (20000 – x)

 

SI for Anshul = x * 20 * 4/100 = 20x/25

 

SI for Rajat = (20000 – x) * 24 * 4/100 =

 

According to the question,

20x/25 – (20000 – x) 24/25 = 864

x = 11400

 

Amount lent to Rajat = Rs. (20000 – 11400) = Rs. 8600

 

  1. 1;

Speed of the person = 6 km/hr

= 6 * 5/18 = 5/3 m/s

Let the speed of train be x m/s

20 = 280/(x – 5/3)

x – 5/3 = 14

x = 47/3m/s

Now the distance covered by train in 45 minutes.

= 47/3 * 60 * 45 = 42300

Time taken by person to cover the distance

= 42300/(6*5/18) = 25380 sec

25380/(60 * 60) = 7 hours 3 minutes

 

Reasoning Quiz

Directions (1-5): Study the information carefully and answer the following questions:
Eight friends P,Q,R,S,T,V,W and Y are sitting around a square table in such a way that four of them sit at four corners of the square while four sit in the middle of each of the four sides. The ones who sit at the four corners faces the centre while those who sit in the middle of the sides face outside. S sits third to the right of P. P faces the centre. Y is not an immediate neighbour of P or S. T sits third to the right of R. R does not sit in the middle of any of the sides and also R is not an immediate neighbour of Y. Only one person sits between P and V. Q is not an immediate neighbour of V.

Q1 .If all the persons are made to sit in alphabetical order in clockwise direction, starting from P, the positions of how many (excluding P) will remain unchanged as compared to their original seating positions?
A) None             B) One               C) Two              D) Three              E) Four

Q2. Which of the following is true regarding Y?
A) T is not immediate neighbor of Y                 B) Y sits in the middle of one of the sides                 C) R sits second to left of Y
D) P and V are immediate neighbors of Y               E) None is true

Q3. Who amongst the following sits fourth to the left of V?
A) Y            B) R                 C) T               D) Q               E) W

Q4. What is the position of Q with respect to R?
A) Immediately to the left                B) Second to the left                C) Third to the left              D) Third to the right
E) Immediately to the right

Q5. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
A) T                 B) W                C) V               D) S              E) Q

Directions (6-10): Study the information carefully and answer the following questions:
A building has eight floors from 1 to 8 in such a way that ground floor is numbered 1, the above floor is numbered 2 and so on. The top most floor is numbered 8. Eight persons G, P, M, R, Q, A, D and C are staying each on one of these floors. A is staying on floor 6. There is a gap of three persons between G and R. C is staying on the topmost floor. Neither P nor M is staying on the floor 5. Q is staying middle of P and M. R is staying on the floor 1. M is not an immediate neighbor of G.

Q6. Who is staying on the floor no. 7?
A) A                 B) P                C) D                  D) R               E) M

Q7. How many persons are staying between D and P?
A) Three               B) Four                C) Two              D) One             E) None of these

Q8. Who is staying on the second floor?
A) Q                B) M                    C) P             D) A               E) Q or M

Q9. If all persons are arranged in alphabetical order such as A occupies floor 1 then who will occupy floor 5?
A) G            B) Q             C) R              D) M              E) P

Q10. Immediate neighbors of the person who is staying in floor 3?
A) R and P          B) A and P            C) G and M               D) P and M             E) D and G

Answers

1. (A)              2. (C)               3. (A)              4. (E)              5. (C)              6. (C)              7. (C)              8. (B)              9. (D)              10. (D)

 

English Quiz

Directions (Q. 1–5): Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below.
(A) Only companies that have a strong pedigree, domain expertise, clear focus on the highend space, a proactive solution orientation and a collaborative mindset will emerge as the winners.
(B) Now, there is a nascent move towards knowledge process outsourcing (KPO).
(C) While outsourcing is present in numerous business functions, including manufacturing, legal, financial and human resources, it is the term BPO (Business Process Outsourcing) that is largely in the news on a daily basis.
(D) There is tremendous potential in the knowledge process outsourcing space.
(E) From mere data entry kind of work, the focus has shifted to transaction processing.
(F) India’s capabilities in this area have been moving towards enhancing the nature of the work done.

Q1. Which of the following should be the “LAST (SIXTH)” sentence after rearrangement?
1) E              2) C              3) B              4) F              5) A

Q2. Which of the following should be the “SECOND” sentence after rearrangement?
1) C              2) A              3) D              4) E              5) F

Q3. Which of the following should be the “FOURTH” sentence after rearrangement?
1) E              2) C              3) A              4) F              5) D

Q4. Which of the following should be the “FIFTH” sentence after rearrangement?
1) E              2) F              3) B              4) D              5) C

Q5. Which of the following should be the “THIRD” sentence after rearrangement?
1) A              2) F              3) B              4) E              5) C

Directions (Q. 6–10): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is ‘No error’ the answer is 5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any)

Q6. When my brother realised 1)/ that the flat contains 2)/ furniture had been sold 3)/ he felt very bad. 4)/ No error 5)

Q7. Among the many challenges 1)/ facing the company 2)/ in the next year 3)/ are training and instruments. 4) /No error 5)

Q8. The details of the programme 1)/ will be made 2)/ clearly to the 3)/ employees. 4)/No error 5)

Q9. India’s textile industry 1)/ is poised 2)/ on growth at 5 per cent 3)/ this year alone. 4)/ No error 5)

Q10. Having work in 1)/ both public and private sector industries 2)/ he is the right choice 3)/ for the post of as branch manager. 4)/ No error 5)

Answer & Explanation

(1–5):DACFEB

  1. 3
  2. 2
  3. 4
  4. 1
  5. 5
  6. 2; Replace ‘contains’ with ‘containing’
  7. 5; No error
  8. 3; Replace ‘clearly’ with ‘clear’
  9. 3; Replace ‘on growth’ with ‘to grow’
  10. 1; Replace ‘work’ with ‘worked’

 

Computer Quiz

Q1. _______ are specially designed computer chips that reside other devices. Such as your car or your car or your electronic thermostat.   
(a) Severs             (b) Embedded computers             (c) Robotic Computers              (d) Mainframe             (e) None of these

Q2. Primary Memory stores:  
(a) Result             (b) Data             (c) Programs             (d) All of these             (e) None of these

Q3. Non-physical components of the computer are referred to as  _______.
(a) CPU             (b) Software             (c) Hardware             (d) Program              (e) None of these

Q4. What was the first fully electronic general purpose computer in the world?  
(a) ENIAC             (b) EDSAC             (c) EDVAC             (d) UNIVAX             (e) Z1

Q5. A type of instruction that can produce several lines of machine language code is called a ______.
(a) Mnemonic             (b) Address             (c) Macro             (d) Assemble              (e) None of these

Q6. What is the sequence of events that occurs in the computer when it is interpreting and executing an instruction known as?
(a) Execution cycle             (b) Instruction cycle              (c) Working cycle             (d) Machine cycle             (e) None of the above

Q7. A graphical input device that can generate digital signals that represent the movement of a pen is known as  
(a) Light pen             (b) Data tablet             (c) Touch Panel             (d) Mouse             (e) None of these

Q8. An input device that reads printed text employing optical character pattern matching, is known as _________.
(a) Scanner             (b) Magnetic disk             (c) Mouse             (d) Magnetic tape             (e) None of these

Q9. How many types of semiconductor memory does a computer have?
(a) Four              (b) Eight             (c) One             (d) Two             (e) Five

Q10. Which among the following is a component of ROM? 
(a) Magnetic cores             (b) Micro-Processors             (c) Photoelectric cells             (d) Floppy disks             (e) None of these

Q11. What is an Offline device?
a) A device which is not connected to CPU             b) A device which is connected to CPU

c) A direct access storage device  d) A system software  e) All of the above

Q12. Which of the following is correct acronym of VGA?
a) Video Graphics Adapter             b) Visual Graphics Array             c) Volatile Graphics Array             d) Video Graphics Array

e) None of the above

Q13. How can you access the font size tool on font dialog box in MS Word?
(a) Ctrl + S                (b) Ctrl + Shift + S             (c) Ctrl + P                (d) Ctrl + Shift + P             (e) Alt + P

Q14. Which of the following terms is related to Internet connectivity? 
(a) IP             (b) TCP             (c) Gopher             (d) Both (a) and (b)              (e) All of the above

Q15. What is Visual FOXPRO?
(a) RDMBS             (b) DBMS             (c) Programming Language             (d) All of the above             (e) None of these

Answers

1.b             2.d             3.b             4.a             5.c             6.b             7.a             8.a             9.d             10.a             11.a             12.d             13.d         14.e             15.c

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