Q1. The length of a rectangle is 20% more than its breadth. What will be the ratio of the area of this rectangle to the area of a square whose side is equal to the breadth of the rectangle?
(1) 5 : 6 (2) 6 : 5 (3) 2 : 1 (4) Data inadequate 5) None of these
Q2. A well with 14m inside diameter is dug 10m deep. Earth taken out around it to a width of 21 m to form an embankment. The height (in metres) of the embankment is:
(1) 1/2 (2) 2/3 (3) 3/4 (4) 3/4 (5) None of these
Q3. The area of a square of side 8 cm is equal to a rectangle. Which of the following statement/s is/are definitely true about the rectangle?
(1) The length of rectangle is 16 times its breadth (2) The length of rectangle is 32 times its breadth
(3) the breadth of rectangle is 1/6 of its length (4) the breadth of rectangle is 1/9 of its length (5) None of these
Q4. A man sold a wristwatch for Rs. 2.400 at a loss of twenty five per cent. At what rate should he have sold the wristwatch to earn a profit of twenty five per cent?
(1) Rs. 3,600 (2) Rs. 4.000 (3) Rs. 3,500 (4) Rs. 3.800 (5) None of these
Q5. Rehaan purchased a bike for Rs 54.000. He sold it at a loss of 8 per cent. With that money he again purchased another bike and sold it at a profit of 10 per cent. What is his overall loss/profit?
(1) Loss of 657 (2) Profit of 567 (3) Loss of 649 (4) Profit of Rs 648 (5) None of these
Q6. Meera purchased an item for Rs. 62,000 and sold it at loss of 25 percent. With that amount she purchased another item and sold it at a gain of 30 percent. What was her overall gain/loss?
(1) Loss of Rs. 1560 (2) Profit of Rs. 1560 (3) Loss of Rs. 1550 (4) Profit of Rs. 1550
(5) None of these
Q7. In an objective examination of 90 questions, 5 marks are allotted for every correct answer and 2 marks are deducted for every wrong answer. After attempting all the 90 questions, a student got a total of 387 marks. The number of questions attempted wrong were:
(1) 9 (2) 18 (3) 27 (4) 36 (5) None of these
Q8. A man has in all Rs. 640 in the denominations of one-rupee, five-rupee and ten rupee notes. The number of each type of notes are equal. What is the total number of notes he has?
(1) 90 (2) 100 (3) 120 (4) 150 (5) None of these
Q9. Sumit had 85 currency notes in all, some of which were of Rs. 100 denomination and the remaining of Rs. 50 denomination. The total amount of all these currency notes was Rs. 5000. What is the value of 50 rupee notes?
(1) Rs. 150 (2) Rs. 700 (3) Rs. 1500 (4) Rs. 3500 (5) None of these
Q10. The Qutab Minar casts a shadow 150m long at the same time when the Vikas Minar casts a shadow 120m long on the ground. If the height of the Vikas Minar is 80m, what is the height of the Qutab Minar?
(1) 100m (2) 120m (3) 150m (4) 180m (5) None of these
1. 2 2. 2 3. 1 4. 2 5. 4 6. 3 7. 1 8. 3 9. 4 10. 1
Directions: Each of the questions below consists of a question and three statements numbered I, II and III given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question and mark the appropriate option as answer.
Q1. How is A related to T?
I. A’s father Q is brother of S. S is T’s wife. II. A is son of Q. Q is brother of S. S is T’s wife. III. T is father of two children.
1) Only I 2) Only II 3) Only I and II 4) Only II and III 5) None of these
Q2. How many months did Vikas take to complete his project work?
I. Mahesh correctly remembers that Vikas took more than two months but less than seven months to complete his project.
II. Pinki correctly remember that Vikas took more than 5 months but less than 10 months to complete his project.
III. Amit correctly remembers that Vikas completed his project within the first year.
1) All I, II and III together 2) Only II 3) Only I and II 4) Only I and III 5) None of these
Q3. Anu, Manu, Ravi, Sahil and Mohit are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. Who is on the immediate left of Ravi?
I. Only Anu is sitting between Manu and Mohit II. Anu is on the immediate left of Manu.
III. Sahil is on the immediate left of Manu.
1) All I, II and III together 2) Only II 3) Only II and III 4) Only I and III 5) None of these
Q4. Who among Subodh, Neeraj, Tara, Meena and Anil is the first to take the lecture?
I. Subodh takes lecture before Meena and Neeraj but not before Anil. II. Tara is not the first to take the lecture.
III. Meena is not the last to take the lecture.
1) Only I 2) Only I and II 3) Only I and either II or III 4) All I, II and III are necessary
5) The question can’t be answered even with the information in all three statements.
Q5. Z is in which direction with respect to X?
I. Y is to the south of X, and Z is to the east of P who is to the north of Y. II. P is to the south of X. III. P is to the west of T.
1) Only I 2) Only II and III 3) All I, II and III together 4) Only I and II 5) None of these
Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Cotton acreage in India during the current year has fallen by 15% as cotton growers have moved on to cultivation of other cash crops. This is the result of the cotton glut in world markets in post-September 2008 and the consequent slowdown in the world economy. But this scenario brought with it benefits to one segment of the industry yarn manufacturers as they got higher prices for their produce. Some yarn manufacturers too had stuck up on low-priced cotton last year. The combined effect of all this is evident in the rise in net profits and net margins of yarn manufacturers.
Q6. Which of the following is an inference which can be made from the facts stated in the above paragraph?
1) The cotton industry grew tremendously post-September 2008.
2) The yarn manufacturers have marginally suffered during post September 2008 period.
3) India was the largest cotton producer earlier.
4) Cotton production will surely grow in upcoming years.
5) None of these
Q7. Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from the facts stated in the above paragraph?
1) Now cotton acerage will never face a crisis like the crisis of September 2008.
2) There has been a huge drop in the supply of cotton during the current year.
3) USA is the largest producer and consumer of cotton.
4) Cotton growers are no more interested in production of cotton.
5) None of these
Q8. What we can say about the following statement? “There has been shortage of cotton in the world market last year.”
1) Definitely true 2) Definitely false 3) Probably true 4) Probably false 5) Nothing can be said
Q9. Which of the following will strengthen the following statement? “The farmers will again grow cotton next year due to increased price of cotton yarn.”
1) Govt plans to increase subsidy on cash crops including cotton.
2) There is a high alert in entire Europe due to terrorist threats.
3) Alternative cash crops are evergreen and unaffected by an economic slowdown.
4) Govt is planning to import more cotton from abroad.
5) None of these
Q10. Which of the following may be a suitable title for the above passage?
1) Terrorism–A big threat to economy 2) The rise and fall in cotton industry 3) India post-September 2008
4) The slowdown in US ecomomy 5) None of these
Q11. Which of the following inferences can be drawn from the statements in the above passage?
1) Indian economy has been unaffected by any global slowdown.
2) India was affected most in the world due to global economy slowdown.
3) The world economy witnessed an upward trend during pre-September 2008.
4) Govt should discourage the production of cotton and encourage shifting to other cash crops.
5) None of these
Using I, we can’t determine if A is nephew or niece of T.
A is nephew of T.
III is not required to answer the question.
2. 3; From I, Vikas can take 3 to 6 months to complete the work.
From II, Vikas can take 6 to 9 months to complete his project.
Using both (I) and (II), we can determine that Vikas took 6 months to complete his project.
From I, order – Anil
From I and II, Tara is not the first, so the order is
Tara may take any position but not first. So, I and II are sufficient.
6. 2; Yes, as a result of cotton glut pos-September 2008. This inference can be made.
7. 2; From the very first sentence of the passage, this conclusion can be drawn.
8. 5; Nothing is said about the market condition of last year.
9. 1; Obviously increased subsidy will encourage them to grow more.
11. 3; Though nothing is mentioned about pre-September 2008 scenario, from the tenor of the passage it may be possible.
Directions (Q. 1-5): Which of the phrases 1), 2), 3), and 4) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold to make the sentence grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is, mark 5), ie “No correction required”, as your answer.
Q1. The labourers continued to work in the field despite of the heavy rains.
1) in spite raining heavily 2) even though the rain was heavy 3) through a rainy day
4) even though it rained heavily 5) No correction required
Q2. Had you tell me about your plan earlier, I would have helped you.
1) If you would have told 2) Had you have told 3) Had you told 4) Having been told
5) No correction required
Q3. They felt humiliated because they realized that they had become cheated.
1) were been cheated 2) had been cheated 3) had been cheating 4) were supposedly being cheated 5) No correction required
Q4. He found the pen as he cleans the floor.
1) while cleaning 2) as he was in cleaning 3) while he cleans 4) as he had cleaned
5) No correction required
Q5. Because of his influence in the area, his suggestion are largely accepted.
1) are widely accepted 2) are without question accepted 3) are in favour accepted
4) are accepted in large quantity 5) No correction required
Directions (Q. 6-10): Given below are six sentences A), B), C), D), E) and F). Arrange them in a proper sequence so as to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below.
(A) Milk, beverages and soup are also high in water content.
(B) Water is the major ingredient of all drinks.
(C) However, they can only be a source of fluid intake and cover only a small part of loss of body fluid.
(D) For instance, diluted squashes have 86 per cent of water content, fruit juices 90 per cent and carbonated drinks 65 per cent.
(E) Low-moisture foods such as grains and meat products do not contribute significantly to water intake.
(F) Many fruits and vegetables are a good source of water—like leafy vegetables, cucumber and watermelon.
Q6. Which will be the ‘LAST’ sentence in the paragraph?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
Q7. Which will be the ‘FIRST’ sentence in the paragraph?
1) B 2) C 3) D 4) E 5) F
Q8. Which sentence will come at ‘FOURTH’ place in the paragraph?
1) A 2) C 3) E 4) F 5) D
Q9. Which sentence will come at ‘SECOND’ place in the paragraph?
1) C 2) D 3) A 4) B 5) E
Q10. Which will be the ‘FIFTH’ sentence in the paragraph?
1) B 2) D 3) A 4) F 5) C
1. 4 2. 3 3. 2 4. 1 5. 1 6. 5 7. 1 8. 4 9. 2 10. 5
Q1. RAM in its commercial forms are available as?
(A) SIMM (B) DIMM (C) Both (A) & (B) (D) CPSB (E) None of these
Q2. Which of the following requires refreshing during retaining the data?
(A) DRAM (B) SRAM (C) Virtual Memory (D) FDD (E) None of these
Q3. Refresh Rate of monitor is measured in?
(A) Hz (B) Meter (C) Volts (D) Amp. (E) None of these
Q4. CRT stands for?
(A) Character Ray Tube (B) Cathode Ray Tube (C) Colour Ray Tube (D) All of the above
(E) None of these
Q5. Which of the following is a type of optical media?
(A) FDD (B) HDD (C) CD (D) Magnetic Tape (E) None of these
Q6. DVD stands for?
(A) Digital Video Disk (B) Digital Versatile Disk (C) Both (A) & (B) (D) All of these (E) None of these
Q7. Identify the odd one?
(A) Storage tape memory (B) Magnetic disc memory (C) Optical disc memory (D) Read only memory (E) None of these
Q8. Nibble describes a bits combination of?
(A) 5 bits (B) 6 bits (C) 7 bits (D) 4 bits (E) None of these
Q9. Which of the following is a logic gate?
(A) AND (B) OR (C) CPU (D) Both (A) & (B) (E) None of these
Q10. A directory within a directory is called?
(A) Mini Directory (B) Junior Directory (C) Part Directory (D) Sub Directory (E) None of theseAnswers
1.c 2.a 3.a 4.b 5.c 6.c 7.d 8.d 9.d 10.d