Quant Mix Quiz

Q1. The ratio of the no. of boys to the no. of girls in a school of 720 students is 3: 5. If 18 new girls are admitted in the school, find how many new boys may be admitted so that the ratio of the no. of boys to the no. of girls may change to 2 : 3.
A) 80                B) 50             C) 42             D) 35               E) None of these 

Q2.The values of x in the equation 7(x+2p)^2 + 5p^2= 35xp + 117p^2 are
A) (4p, –3p)                 B) (4p, 3p)                C) (–4p, 3p)              D) (–4p, –3p)               E) None of these.

Q3. What is the amount of compound interest and effective rate of interest if an amount of Rs.20000 is deposited in a bank for one year at the rate of 8% per annum compounded semi annually.
A) 1632, 8.16%           B)  1600, 9.36%                C) 1936, 10.36%                D) 1756, 9.56%               E) None of these.

Q4. 3 men can complete a piece of work in 6 days. Two days after they started the work, 3 more men joined them. How many days will they take to complete the remaining work?
A) 5 days              B) 2 days           C) 8 days               D) 12 days              E) None of these.

Q5. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 36 min. and 45 min. respectively. A water pipe C can empty the tank in 30 min. First A and B are opened. After 7 minutes, C is opened. In how much time, the tank is full?
A) 45 minutes                 B) 46 minutes                C) 52 minutes              D) 56 minutes             E)  None of these.

Q6. Abhishek purchased 140 shirts and 250 trousers at the rate of Rs. 450 and Rs. 550 respectively. What should be the overall average selling price of shirts and trousers so that 40% profit is earned? (Rounded off to next integer).
A) Rs.725               B) Rs.710               C) Rs. 720              D) Rs. 700              E) None of these

Q7. In a college the students in Arts and Commerce faculties were in the ratio of 4:5 respectively. When 65 more students joined Commerce faculty the ratio became 8:11 respectively. How many students are there in Arts faculty?
A) 520              B) 650              C) 715               D) Cannot be determined             E) None of these

Q8. An amount of Rs. 10,000 becomes Rs. 14,641 in two years if the interest is compounded half yearly. What is the rate of compound interest % per annum?
A) 10           B) 20           C) 16            D) 12               E) None of these.

Q9. Area of a rectangle is equal to the area of the circle whose radius is 21 cm. If the length and the breadth of the rectangle are in the ratio of 14:11 respectively, what is its perimeter?
A) 142cm               B) 140cm                 C) 132cm                D) 150 cm                 E) None of these

Q10. Prashant purchased a TV set for Rs. 12,500 and spent Rs. 300 on transportation and Rs. 800 on installation. At what price should he sell it so as to earn an overall profit of 15%?
A) Rs. 14,560               B) Rs. 14,375             C) Rs. 15,640             D) Rs. 15,375              E) None of these.

Q11. Three girls start jogging from the same point around a circular track and each one completes one round in 24 seconds, 36 seconds and 48 seconds respectively. After how much time will they meet at one point?   
A) 2 minutes, 20 seconds             B) 2 minutes, 24 seconds                C) 4 minutes, 12 seconds             D) 3 minutes, 36 seconds       E) None of these

Q12. A 240-metre long train running at the speed of 60 km/hour will take how much time to cross another 270 metre long train running in opposite directions at the speed of 48 km/hour?
A) 17 seconds              B) 3 seconds                C) 12 seconds              D) 8 seconds              E) None of these

Q13. Sarita started a boutique investing an amount of Rs. 50,000. Six months later Meeta joined her with an amount of Rs. 80,000. At the end of one year they earned a profit of Rs. 18,000. What is Sarita’s   share in the profit?
A) Rs. 9,000             B) Rs. 8,000                 C) Rs. 12,000                 D) Rs 10,000               E) None of these

Q14. A alone can make 100 baskets in 6 days and B alone can make 100 baskets in 12 days. In how many days can A and B together make 100 baskets?
A) 3 days            B) 5 days             C) 2 (1/2 ) days               D) 3(1/2) days               E) None of these

Q15. Samir’s age is one-fourth of his father’s age and two third of his sister Reema’s age. What is the ratio of the ages of Samir, Reema and their father respectively?
A) 3:2:8                B) 3:4:8               C) 2:3:8               D) 4:3:8              E) None of these

Reasoning Quiz

Directions (1-5): Each question below is followed by two statements I and II. You are to determine whether the data given in the statement is sufficient to answer the question. You should use the data and your knowledge of Mathematics to choose between the possible answers. Give answer—
1. If the statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, but the statement II alone is not sufficient.
2. If the statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, but the statement I alone is not sufficient.
3. If either the statement I alone or the statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
4. If you cannot get the answer from the statements I and II together, but need more data.
5. If both statements I and II together are needed to answer the question.

Q1. What is Himaksh’s position in a row of 12 children?
I. Manoj is fourth to the left of Ravi; Himaksh is seventh to the right of Narendra.
II. Himaksh is fifth to the right of Ravi; Manoj is third to the left at Narendra which is at one end.

Q2.Are some boys students?
I. Some students are teachers; All teachers are boys.
II. Some teachers are students; All boys are teachers.

Q3. Among M, N, O, P and R, P is taller than how many people?
I. O is taller than M but shorter than R, who is not taller than P.
II. N is not the tallest but is taller than O.

Q4. Difference of how many day’s is there between the ages of Jagu and Ankit?
I. Ankit was born on 26 and the month was September or October. Jagu was born on October 12.
II. Ankit was 3 months old at his first new year. Both of them were born in the same year.

Q5. Find the age of Kashvi.
I. Kashvi is more than 3 years older than Sneha. Sneha is 19 years old.
II. The ratio of the ages of Parul and Kashvi is 3 : 5 respectively. Total age of both of them is between 65 to 73 years.

Direction (6-9): Read the following proposition and statements, thereupon carefully answer the questions which follow.
The provisional Census 2011 figures suggest that two contrasting demographic “nations” are emerging in the country with all four south Indian States – Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu — already having achieved the replacement level fertility of 2.1 children per women required to initiate the process of population stabilisation, while the four large north Indian States — Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh — have still a long way to go before they achieve the required level.
(A) This emerging “demographic divide” could pose problems for socio-economic developments as well as unity of the country.
(B) Replacement level fertility is the number of children a woman should have to replace herself and her mate for a stable population.
(C) India has been in the middle of the demographic transition over the past several decades where the death rate has fallen sharply because of improved public health as well as sanitation.
(D) The birth rate has remained high in the four large north Indian States of Bihar, M.P, Rajasthan and U.P. due to slow progress towards socio-economic development as well as limited access to quality reproductive health and contraceptive services.
(E) The use of ante-natal and post-natal as well as family planning services in the four large southern states is satisfactory which leads to slower population growth.

Q6. Which of the statements numbered A, B, C, D and E mentioned above would strengthen the argument that four large north Indian states – Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh have still a long way to go before they achieve the required level.”
(1) Only B and C                    (2) Only A and C                (3) Only A and B              (4) Only D              (5) Only C and D

Q7. Which of the statements numbered A, B, C, D and E can be assumed/inferred from the facts/information given in the statements? (An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted and an inference is something which is not directly stated but can be inferred from the given facts.)
(1) Only A, B and C               (2) Only A and B                 (3) Only A and C                 (4) Only A, D and E                (5) All of the Above

Q8.Which of the following can be inferred from Statements (E) if it is considered to be true with regard to the given statements?
(1) The Northern Indian states have achieved the optimum population level
(2) In near future no any demographic problem will occur in North Indian states
(3) The population of four major North Indian states has been stablised
(4) The North Indian states will register a moderate population growth
(5) None of these

Q9. Which of the statements numbered A, B, C, D and E mentioned above represents a reason behind achieving the replacement level fertility in North Indian states?
(1) A                  (2) B                 (3) C              (4) D             (5) E

Directions (10-14): In making decisions about important questions, it is desirable to be able to distinguish between ‘strong’arguments and ‘weak’arguments. ‘Strong’ arguments are those which are both important and directly related to the question. ‘Weak’ arguments are those which are of minor importance and also may not be directly related to the question or may be related to a trivial aspect of the question.
Instructions: In each of the following a question is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which argument is strong and which argument is weak. Give answer
(1) if only argument I is strong.                (2) if only argument II is strong.               (3)  if either argument I or II is strong.
(4)  if neither argument I nor II is strong.               (5)  if both the arguments I and II are strong.

Q10. Statement:
Should Hindi language be made compulsory at school level in all the States in India?
 Arguments:
No, students should not be forced to learn any language.
Yes, it is the national language, so everybody must learn it.

Q11. Statement: Should the retirement age of all government employees in India be made 50 years?
 Arguments:
I.Yes, this will help government to offer employment to youth at lower cost and with higher productivity.
II.No, the government will be deprived of the expertise of the experienced employees and this will have adverse effect on the productivity.

Q12. Statement: Should India pull out of Commonwealth Confederation?
 Arguments:
I.No, India will lose an international forum to express its opinion on world matters.
II.Yes, Commonwealth has lost its relevance in the post- cold war scenario.

Q13. Statement: Should all the profit-making public sector units be sold to private companies?
 Arguments:
I.Yes, this will help the government to augment its resources for implementing the development programmes.
II.No, the private companies will not be able to run these units effectively.

Q14. Statement: Should all beggars on the roads in the big cities in India be forcibly sent to villages?
 Arguments:
I.No, this is grossly unfair and these people may die of hunger if they are sent to villages.
II.Yes, these people create a bad impression of our country in the eyes of the foreigners who visit our country and hence should be removed.

Q15.Look at this series: 10             4.44             5.None of the above

English (Mix Quiz)

Directions (Q. 1-15): In the following passage, some of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by a number. Find the suitable word from the options given against each number and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningful.
Several studies have (1) that folks who (2) engage in mentally challenging activities—like reading, doing crossword puzzles or playing chess (3) less likely to (4) dementia later in life. The difficulty comes in figuring out (5) their good fortune is a direct (6) of their leisure activities or whether their continuing pursuit of these pleasures merely (7) good genes for cognitive function.
A 20-year survey of 469 elderly people living in the Bronx, New York, tried to get to the (8) of this chicken or egg question by following subjects who (9) no signs of dementia in the first seven years of the study. The results. which were published in 2003, showed that reading and playing board games or a musical instrument was (10) with a decreased risk of Alzehimer’s disease or other forms of dementia. (11), those with the strongest habits (12) the greatest benefits. Participants who solved crossword puzzles four days a week, for instance, had a 47% (13) risk of dementia than those who do the puzzles once a week.  By the same (14), several studies have suggested that older folks who are socially active — (15), for example, do volunteer work or attend religious services – have a reduced risk of dementia.

Q1.  1) done .          2) performed            3) found             4) led            5) ensured

Q2. 1) seldom          2) never              3) absently             4) reluctantly          5) regularly

Q3. 1) seem          2) have             3) were             4) refrain             5) ascertain

Q4.  1) cure               2) engage              3) embarrass               4) develop              5) form

Q5.  1) that             2) low               3) when              4) why           5) whether

Q6. 1) goal            2) result              3) measure           4) route            5) offer

Q7. 1) encourages                 2) reflects                  3) enhances                4) engenders         5) threats

Q8. 1) height               2) cause           3) bottom                4) dilemma          5) Anxiety

Q9. 1) had                     2) conceal                   3) reserve                   4) force              5) accumulate

Q10. 1) bereft                  2) together                    3)  envisaged                  4) associated               5) anticipated

Q11.  1)  Luckily               2) Certainly            3) Intriguingly             4)  Unfortunately            5) Obviously

Q12. 1)  targeted               2) demonstrated                  3) desered              4) demanded          5) expected

Q13. 1) more              2) greatly            3) sharper                4) steeper             5) lower

Q14.  1) token            2) way           3) analogy            4) example          5) author

Q15. 1) they              2) always                3) same              4) who           5) many 

Directions (16- 20): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error the answer is (5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.) 

Q16. You may not know it 1)/ but this engine is 2) / claimed to have twice 3) / as powerful as the previous one. 4) / No error 5)

Q17. Nothing ever becomes real 1)/ till it is experienced. 2) / Even a proverb is no proverb to you 3)/ till your life has illustrated with it. 4)/ No error 5)

Q18. I remember my childhood days 1)/ when I was used to go 2) to the farm with my father 3) / and help him in his work. 4)/ No error 5)

Q19. I missed the last train 1) / which I usually catch 2) / and have to stay at the station 3) / on my way back home yesterday. 4) / No error 5)

Q20. Suresh babu, who is living1) / in this town since 1955, 2)/ is a well-known scholar of history 3) / and a distinguished musician. 4) / No error 5)

Computer Quiz

Q1. A logic gate is an electronic circuit which
(a) makes logic decisions            (b) allows electron flow only in one direction             (c) works on binary algebra
(d) alternates between 0&1 values

Q2. In logic algebra, variables can assume only two values:either ………. or 1.
(a) 2                 (b) 0             (c) 3              (d) 4

Q3. 8421 codes is also called as.
a) Gray code                b) ASCII code                c) excess 3-code              d) BCD code

Q4. Which of the following is a computer code
a) EPROM             b) JAVA               c) EBCDIC              d) None of the above

Q5. Which of the following would cause quickest acess
a) direct access from a magnetic tape b) direct access from a hard disk c) direct access from a floppy disk               d) direct access from a cassette tape

Q6. A computer cannot “boot” if it does not have the
a) Compiler b) Loader c) Operating system              d) Assembler

Q7. The errors that can be pointed out by the compiler are
a) Syntax errors b) Semantic errors c) Logical errors                 d) None of the above

Q8. A step by step procedure used to solve a problem is called
a) Operating system b) Algorithm c) Application Program               d) None of the above

Q9. The communication line between the CPU, memory and peripherals is called a
a) Bus b) line c) media              d) none of these

Q10. A large number of computers in a wide geographical area can be efficiently connected by
(a) Twisted pair lines               (b) Coaxial cables               (c) Communications satellites                (d) None of the above