QUIZ 23

Quant Quiz

Ques – 01 There were seven children of a person. when, the average age of children was 12 years, a child of age 6 year had died. After 5 years from this incident,what was the average age of remaining childrens.??

a) 17        b) 18         c) 19       d) 20       e) NOTA

Ques – 02 Avg weight of a group of 5 members A,B,C,D and E is 94 kg. When F joins the group,avg weight becomes 96 kg. Weight of E is 6 kg less than F. Now, G replaces A and thus Avg weight becomes 98 kg. What is the difference between the weights of A and G.??

a) 11       b) 10          c) 12        d) 13       e) NOTA

Ques – 03 Avg temp of May 1999 was 40*C. The ratio of Avg temp of June, July ,Aug and Sept as compare to May was 5:6, 1:1, 1:1 and 8:5. Find the Avg temp from June to Sept.??

a) 43         b) 43.5         c) 44      d) 45      e) NOTA

Ques-04 6 friends went to hotel. 5 of them spend 32 rs each,while sixth person spend 80 rs more than the average expenditure of all. Find the Avg. Expenditure of all six friends.??

a) 48         b) 49          c) 50       d) 47       e) NOTA

Ques-05 One year ago, the ratio of  income of A and B was 8:9. The ratio of income of A in last and present year is 2:3 and for B its 3:2. If total present income of A and B is 72000. find the income of B.??

a) 48000       b) 24000        c) 36000        d) 30000        e) NOTA

Ques-06 The ratio of Income of A,B,C and D is 5:6:8:9 and the ratio of their expenditure is 8:9:7:10 resp. Income of B is 3600 and Exp of D is 400. find the total saving of A,B,C and D together.??

a) 15400         b) 16440        c) 15440       d) 15444       e) NOTA

Ques-07 The ratio of numbers of Peon ,Clerk and Officers in an office is 4:7:3 and the ratio of salary of each is 7:11:19 resp. If total number of Clerk is 28 and total expenditure in the form of salary is 194400. Find the salary of each Peon.??

a) 2000         b) 2200         c) 2100        d) 2300       e) NOTA

Ques-08 P:Q=R:S=T:U=2:3

Find (MP:NR:OT):(MQ:NS:OU)

a) 2:5        b) 3:2          c) 2:1       d) 2:3        e) NOTA

Ques-9 A and B together can do a work in 9 days.they together starts working but A works of 3 days and left the job ,the remaining work is done by B in 27 days. A alone will complete the work in.??

a) 12         b) 23          c) 26          d) 24          e) NOTA

Ques-10 A and B together can do a work in 20 days. they together worked for 5 days and then C joins them. Thus the work is completed 5 days earlier. Work done by B in 3 days is equal to work done by C in 2 days. A alone will complete the whole work in.??a) 40      b) 60       c) 30         d) 50        e) NOTA

Ques-11 A and B together can do a work in 12 days. B and C  together can do the same work in 15 days. A is twice as good as C. B alone will complete the work in.??

a) 20      b) 25           c) 30      d) 35      e) NOTA

Ques-12 Two inlet pipes A and B can fill a tank in 25 and 45 min. and outlet pipe C can empty the full tank in 10 min. A and B together are opened for 5 min and then C also opened. The tank will be emptied in.??

a) 8 3/17           b) 8 5/17            c) 8 4/17        d) 7 4/17       e) NOTA

Answers

1. b        2. c       3. b      4. a     5. b     6. c     7. c     8. d     9. a     10. c     11. a     12. C

 

Reasoning Quiz

Directions (1-2): These questions are based on the following information.

Six friends A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a straight line. B sits third to the left of E, who sits at the end of the line. C is not an immediate neighbour of F and E. One person sits between B and D. F is sitting at the left end of the line.

Q1. What is the A’s position with respect of E?

(1)  fourth right     (2)  third right     (3)  fourth left     (4)  fifth left     (5)  None of these

Q2. If all the six friends are made to sit alphabetically from right to left, position of how many of them will remain unchanged?

(1)  None     (2)  One     (3)  Two     (4)  Three     (5)  None of these

Direction (3-8): Study the given information and answer the following questions:

Eight friends M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T are sitting around circular table and belong to eight different states Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Andhra Pradesh, Chandigarh, Punjab, Haryana, Kerala and Maharashtra. They read three Newspapers in Hindi, English and Punjabi. At least two persons read one news paper not necessarily in the same order.

Only P and Q read Hindi Newspaper. P is third to right of Q. M is from Kerala reads English Newspaper and is sitting immediate right of Q. R is from Chandigarh and reads Punjabi Newspaper. T reads the same Newspaper as S reads who is third to left of R and fourth to right of N. O is sitting exact opposite of P who belongs to UP. Persons who belong to Maharashtra and Andhra Pradesh read English Newspaper. S is from Haryana while N is from Andhra Pradesh reads English Newspaper. T is from Punjab.

Q3. Who does not read English Newspaper?

(1) O     (2) N     (3) M     (4) T     (5) None of these

Q4. From which state Q belongs?

(1) UP      (2) Bihar     (3) Maharashtra          (4) Andhra Pradesh          (5) None of theseWhich of the following is not

Q5. Which of the following is not correct combination?

(1) T- Punjab – Punjabi           (2) Q – Kerala-Hindi     (3) O-Maharashtra-English     (4) P-UP-Hindi     (5) All are correct combinations

Q6. Which two persons are sitting adjacently who read Punjabi Newspapers?

(1) RT     (2) RN     (3) RS     (4) TS     (5) None of these

For Qs (7-8): on the basis of above arrangement four of the following forms a group which one does not related to the group?

Q7. (1) OQ (2) RN     (3) PT     (4) MS     (5) MO

Q8. (1) PQ (2) RS     (3)TR     (4) OM     (5)SN

Direction (9-10): In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. These statements are followed by two conclusions. You have to find out which of the conclusion logically follows from the given statements.

Q9. Statements:X Y,      Y  W,    W < P,      P  M

Conclusions:  I. M > W     II.  P > X     III. X  M

(1) only I follows     (2) only II follows     (3) only III follows     (4) only I and III follows     (5) None of these

Q10. Statements:P  Q,      N  S,     Q > N        S < T

Conclusions:  I. T > Q,      II. P  S     III. Q > T    IV. P > N

(1) only I and II follows    (2) only I, II and III follows     (3) only III and IV follow     (4) only II, III and IV follows     (5) None of these

Answers

1. 3        2. 3          3. (4)       4. (2)       5. (2)     6. (1)     7. (5)     8. (3)       9. (1)        10. (5)

 

English Quiz

Directions (1-10): Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow:

Nature is like business. Business sense dictates that we guard our capital and live from the interest. Nature’s capital is the enormous diversity of living things. Without it, we cannot feed ourselves, cure ourselves of illness or provide industry with the raw materials of wealth creation. Professor Edward Wilson, of Harvard University says, “The folly our descendants are least likely to forgive us is the ongoing loss of genetic and species diversity. This will take millions of years to correct.”

Only 150 plant species have ever been widely cultivated. Yet over 75,000 edible plants are known in the wild. In a hungry world, with a population growing by 90 million each year, so much wasted potential is tragic. Medicines from the wild are worth around 40 billion dollars a year. Over 5000 species are known to yield chemical with cancer fighting potential Scientists currently estimate that the total number of species in the world is between 10-30 million with only around 1.4 million identified.

The web of life is torn when mankind exploits natural resources in short-sighted ways. The trade in tropical hardwoods can destroy whole forests to extract just a few commercially attractive specimens. Bad agricultural practice triggers 24 billion tonnes of top soil erosion a year losing the equivalent of 9 million tonnes of grain output. Cutting this kind of unsuitable exploitation and instituting “sustainable utilisation” will help turn the environmental crisis around.

Q1. Why does the author compare ‘nature’ to business?

(a) Because of the capital depletion in nature and business     (b) Because of the similarity with which one should use both

(c) Because of the same interest level yield     (d) Because of the diversity of the various capital inputs

(e) None of These

Q2. “The folly our descendants are least likely to forgive us.” What is the business equivalent of the folly the author is referring to?

(a) Reducing the profit margin     (b) Not pumping some money out of profits into the business.

(c) Eroding the capital lease of the business     (d) Putting interest on capital buck into the business

(e) None of These

Q3. Which of the following statements is false in context of the given passage? 

(a) The diversity of plant life is essential for human existence.      (b) Scientists know the usefulness of most plant species.

(c) Chemicals for cancer treatment are available from plants.

(d) There are around ten times the plant species undiscovered as compared to the discovered ones.

(e) None of These

Q4. Which of the following correctly reflects the opinion of the author to take care of hunger in the world?

(a) Increase the number of edible plants being cultivates.      (b) Increase cultivation of the 150 species presently under cultivation.

(c) Increase the cultivation of medical plants.      (d) Increase the potential of the uncultivated edible plants

(e) None of These

Q5. Which of the following is mentioned as the immediate cause for the destruction of plant species?

(a) Soil Erosion     (b) Destruction of habitat     (c) Cultivation     (d) Agricultural practices     (e) None of These

Directions (6-8): Choose the word which is nearly same in meaning to the given word as used in the passage.

Q6. WASTED

(a) Consumed     (b) Squandered     (c) Unutilised     (d) Unprofitable     (e) None of These

Q7. TRIGGERS

(a) Starts     (b) Makes     (c) Results     (d) Causes     (e) None of These

Q8. WORTH

(a) Cost     (b) Purchase     (c) Deserving     (d) Sell     (e) None of These

Directions (9-10): Choose the word which is nearly opposite in meaning to the given word as used in the passage.

Q9. CUTTING

(a) Uniting     (b) Increasing     (c) Joining     (d) Combining     (e) None of These

Q10. GUARD

(a) Demolish     (b) Relieve     (c) Consume     (d) Release     (e) None of These

Directions (11-15): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘5’. i.e. No error.

Q11. Taken into consideration (1)/the advice of his (2) friends, he decided (3)/to stay here.(4)/No error (5)

Q12. Carry a bag (1)/in his hand (2)/he slipped (3)/out unnoticed. (4)/No error (5)

Q13. Suraj said that (1)/he would rather (2)/fail than copying (3)/in the examination. (4)/No error (5)

Q14. I have told Sushil (1)/that it will not be possible (2)/for me carry on (3)/this kind of work. (4)/No error (5)

Q15. In the absence of (1)/clear instructions (2)/one cannot be expected (3)/to be functioned effectively. (4)/No error (5)

Answers

1. 2    2. 3     3. 2      4. 4    5. 2     6. 3     7. 4     8. 3     9. 2     10. 1     11. 1    12. 1     13. 3      14. 3    15.

 

Computer Quiz

Q1. An input device that converts data punched into paper lape into a binary format is

A. Page reader B. Paper tape punch C. Paper tape reader     D. Card punch     E. None of the above

Q2. A computer will function only if it
A. has a control unit     B. is given input data     C. has a program in its memory     D. has software package     E. None of the above

Q3. A memory in which the information is stored last is on top & is retrieved first is known as
A. PROM     B. Buffer     C. Stack     D. RAM     E. None of the above

Q4. Regarding a VDU, which statement is more correct?
A. It is an output device     B. It is an input device     C. It is a peripheral device     D. It is a hardware item     E. None of the above

Q5. Plotter accuracy is measured in terms of repeatability and
A. buffer size     B. resolution     C. vertical dimension     D. intelligence     E. None of the above

Q6. The minimum time delay required between the initiation of two successive memory operations is known as
A. memory cycle time     B. memory access time     C. transmission time     D. waiting time     E. None of the above

Q7. Which of the following terms describe 1024 kilobytes?
A. Kilobyte     B. Megabyte     C. Gigabyte     D. Terabyte     E. None of the above

Q8. The flow and timing to data to and from the microprocessor is regulated by
A. control pins     B. address pins     C. data pins     D. power pins     E. None of the above

Q9. The total number of messages handled by a computerized telephone system on a daily basis is an example of:
A. Frequency     B. Updating     C. Volume     D. All of the above     E. None of the above

Q10. An internal storage consisting of arrays of small rings of magnetic material called ferrite is
A. Magnetic tape     B. Magnetic core     C. Magnetic disk     D. Optical mark reader     E. None of the above

Q11. In the language of the computer profession, one thousand position of main storage is represented with the letter
A. K     B. L     C. M     D. C     E. None of the above

Q12. Which of the following processor is software that accepts user ideas, manipulates and reorganises them in user-specified ways and then produces a refined model of those thoughts.
A. Distribute     B. Out-line     C. Multi     D. On-line     E. None of the above

Q13. The word ‘Computer’ usually refers to the Central Processor Unit plus
A. External memory     B. Internal memory     C. Input devices     D. Output devices     E. None of the above

Q14. The control of the jobs running within a system is
A. Job monitoring     B. Job stream     C. Job min     D. Job step     E. None of the above

Q15. Communication using a modulated carrier to apply a data signal to a transmission medium in analog form is
A. Local area network     B. Modem     C. Base band networking     D. Broad band networking     E. None of the above

Answers

1.C     2.C     3.C     4.C     5.B     6.A     7.B     8.A     9.C     10.B     11.A     12.B     13.B     14.A     15.D

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