Directions—(Q. 1–5) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Out of the 45,000 candidates eligible for an Officer’s Post in a Public Sector Bank, 1350 candidates have prior experience of working in Public Sector Banks in rural areas only. One-fourth of the total number of candidates has prior experience of working in Public Sector Banks in urban areas only. 12% of the total number of candidates has prior experience of working in Private Sector Banks in urban areas only. 2% of the total number of candidates has prior experience of working in Private Sector Banks in rural areas only. 10800 candidates have worked in Public Sector Banks in both urban and rural areas. 15% of the total number of candidates has worked in both Public and Private Sector Banks in urban areas only. 1800 candidates have worked in both Public and Private Sector Banks in rural areas only. The remaining candidates have no prior experience of working in the Banking industry.
Q1. How many candidates have prior experience of working in rural areas (both Public Sector and Private Sector Banks together) ?
(1) 13050 (2) 14,850 (3) 14400 (4) 14700 (5) 14550
Q2. How many total candidates have prior experience of working in Public Sector Banks (Urban and Rural areas together) ?
(1) 37,350 (2) 25200 (3) 30150 (4) 31950 (5) None of these
Q3. What is the respective ratio of the candidates who have a prior experience of working in Public Sector banks in rural areas only to the candidates who have a prior experience of working in Private sector banks in rural areas only?
(1) 4 : 3 (2) 3 : 2 (3) 2 : 3 (4) 3 : 4 (5) None of these
Q4. What is the total number of candidates who have worked in Private Sector Banks in urban areas ?
(1) 3600 (2) 6750 (3) 12150 (4) 10800 (5) None of these
Q5. The candidates who have no prior experience of working in the banking industry are what per cent of the candidates who have worked in Public Sector banks in both urban and rural areas ?
(1) 60•5 (2) 63•5 (3) 62.5 (4) 64 (5) None of these
Directions—(6–10) Study the following table carefully and answer the questions given below it
The table gives the percentage of marks scored by six students in different subjects. The total marks in each subject is also given with the subject.
Q6. What is approximate overall percentage obtained by Charu in the examination ?
(1) 78 (2) 69 (3) 75 (4) 71 (5) 65
Q7. What is the difference in the marks obtained by Dheeraj in English and the marks obtained by Manoj in the same subjects ?
(1) 12 (2) 6.5 (3) 10 (4) 8 (5) None of these
Q8. The marks obtained by Ankur in Geography are approximately what per cent of the marks as it is obtained by Kalpana in Hindi ?
(1) 45 (2) 33 (3) 50 (4) 60 (5) None of these
Q9. What is the overall percentage of marks obtained by Kalpana in History and Geography together ?
(1) 73•40 (2) 72•80 (3) 70•50 (4) 68•80 (5) None of these
Q10. What is the average marks obtained by all the students together in Science ?
(1) 79•5 (2) 120•50 (3) 118 (4) 121 (5) None of these
Total Candidates = 45000
With Work Experience = 38250
Without Work Experience = 45000 – 38250 = 6750
Required number of candidates = 10800 + 4050 = 14850
Required number of candidates = 23400 + 8550 = 31950
Required ratio = 1350 : 900 = 3 : 2.
4. (3) Required number of candidates = 5400 + 6750 = 12150.
5. (3) Required percentage = 6750/10800 * 100 = 62.5
Total marks of Charu = 72% of 100 + 60% of 100 + 68% of 150 + 74% of 60 + 68% of 150 + 75% of 40
= 72 + 60 + 102 + 44.4 + 102 + 30 = 410.4
Percentage of marks = 410.4/600 * 100 = 69 approx
Required difference = (85 – 75) = 10
Required percentage = 55% of 40/66% of 100 * 100 = 33.33%
Required percentage = (80% of 60 + 62% of 40)/ (60 + 40) * 100 = 72.8
Average marks of all students in science = (82 + 85 + 72 + 80 + 68 + 90)/6 * 150/100 = 119.25
Directions (1-5): In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement. Give answer
(1) if only assumption I is implicit. (2) if only assumption II is implicit. (3) if either I or II is implicit.
(4) if neither I nor 11 is implicit. (5) if both I and II are implicit.
Q1. Statement: “Buy durable pillows of company ‘X’. The pillows have been made from 100% imported downs and feather; have the natural property to take the contour and shape of your head, neck and shoulder while you sleep; and are very popular abroad as well as in the domestic market.” — An advertisement
I. Immense popularity of a product is a sign of the using export.
II. Bicycle is the most affordable mode of transport.
Q2. Statement: “Oil the wheels that India moves on” is the cry of bicycle manufacturers in the country.
I. The bicycle and components industry is a priority focus area possessing capability of thrusting export.
II. Bicycle is the most affordable mode of transport.
Q3. Statement: “No representative is authorised to collect cash. Do not pay cash to anybody. All subscribers are requested to make payments only through cheques/DD in favour of the company.”— An instruction to subscribers by company X
I. If it is not said explicitly, the subscriber may claim for their payments in cash in case any irregularities are made by the representatives.
II. Representatives of company X are not trustworthy.
Q4. Statement: “Please do not display a damaged or dishevelled flag.”—Ministry of Home Affairs Assumptions:
I. Damaged and dishevelled flag is an indicator of the deteriorating condition of a country.
II. When a flag is damaged or soiled, it should be destroyed in private.
Q5. Statement: “On this auspicious occasion of Republic Day let us take the resolution to help the drought-affected 4.3 crore population and 4.5 crore livestock of the state.”—An appeal by the CM of state X to its citizens
I. Citizens’ participation will ensure pride and respect of all sections of society as well as overall development of the state.
II. Miseries of people affected by drought will be lessened through people’s participation.
Directions (6-10): In making decisions about important questions, it is desirable to be able to distinguish between “strong” arguments and “weak” arguments insofar as they relate to the question. “Strong” arguments are those which are both important and directly related to the question. “Weak” arguments are those which are of minor importance and also may not be directly related to the question or may be related to a trivial aspect of the question.
Each question below is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which ofthe arguments is a “strong” argument and which is a “weak” argument. Give answer
(1) if only argument I is “strong”. (2) if only argument II is “strong’*: (3) if either I or II is “strong”.
(4) if neither I nor II is “strong”. (5) if both I and II are “strong”.
Q6. Statement: Should the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) be brought under the direct control ofthe Cabinet Secretariat?
I. Yes, this will reduce cases of partiality and will make CBI more meaningful and purposeful.
II. No, the move will empower the prime minister to harass leaders of coalition parties if these leaders do not go in his favour on any issue.
Q7. Statement: Should the law ministry put in place a new corrective mechanism to make judges with ‘deviant behaviour’ more accountable to the system?
I. Yes, the mechanism will check the judiciary’s sagging standards.
II. No, any such mechanism can’t be successful unless the executive plays a role in collaboration with the judiciary.
Q8. Statement: Should sale and purchase of human organs be made legal in India?
I. Yes, in many countries sale and purchase of human organs is not considered illegal.
II. No, this will open the floodgates for the sale of human organs.
Q9. Statement: Should medical colleges be allowed to admit students even after the commencement of their session, if the seats remain unfilled?
I. Yes, unfilled seats will weaken the economic condition of the colleges.
II. No, this will hamper the study of the students of the entire batch.
Q10. Statement: Should robots replace astronauts in space missions?
I. Yes, this will save the precious life of human beings.
II. No, this will make space missions more expensive.
Directions (11-15): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Twelve friends are seated along the two rows – (such that facing each other.) A, B, C, D, E and F are seated in first row and facing south. P, Q, R, S, T and V are seated in second row and facing north. Q is on the immediate right of S who is facing A. D is on the immediate right of A. P, F and C are at extreme ends and nobody is seated on the right of F. Only V is seated between P and T and he is not facing B. Q is on the immediate left of R.
Q11. Who is Facing C?
(1) P (2) V (3) T (4) Q (5) None of these
Q12. Which of the following pairs is at one of the extreme Ends?
(1) F, T (2) C, T (3) P, B (4) R, C (5) None of these
Q13. Who is facing V?
(1) B (2) A (3) D (4) Can’t say (5) None of these
Q14. If A is related to R in a certain way and E is related to S in the same way, then which of the following is related to D?
(1) Q (2) T (3) P (4) V (5) None of these
Q15. If in the first row first person from the left interchange its position with the sixth person from the left and following the same way second person changes its position with fifth and third person change its position with forth and so on, who will face’s’?
(1) A (2) C (3) D (4) B (5) None of these
1. 1 2. 4 3. 1 4. 2 5. 3 6. 3 7. 2 8. 2 9. 2 10. 1 11. 5. R 12. 4 13. 5. E 14. 1 15. 3
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-5): Rearrange the following six sentences(A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph, then answer the questions given below them.
(A) Do the devices that make it possible to do so many things at once truly raise our productivity or merely help us spin our wheels faster?
(B) More important, they’re exploring what can be done about it– how we can work smarter, live smarter and put our beloved gadgets back in their proper place, with us running them, not the other way around.
(C) The dinging digital devices that allow us to connect and communicate so readily also disrupt our work, our thoughts and what little is left of our private lives.
(D) They have begun to calculate the pluses, the minuses and the economic costs of the interrupted life– in dollars, productivity and dysfunction.
(E) What sort of toll is all this disruption and mental channel switching taking on our ability to think clearly work effectively and function as healthy human beings?
(F) Over the past five years, psychologists, efficiency, experts and information-technology researchers have begun to explore those questions in detail.
Q(1) Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence?
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) E
Q(2) Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence?
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) E
Q(3) Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence?
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) F
Q(4) Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence?
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) E
Q(5) Which of the following should be the SIXTH sentence?
(1) A (2) F (3) C (4) D (5) E
DIRECTIONS (Q. 6-15): In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
Haria, a poor barber lived alone in his small hut. He was…(6)… to his work and whatever he earned was enough to fulfil his needs. One evening, after returning from work, Haria was hungry. Just as he was …(7)… what he could cook for dinner he heard a hen clucking outside his hut. “That hen would make a great feast,” thought Haria and prepared to catch the hen. With a little effort he …(8)… in catching the hen and as he was about to kill the hen, it squeaked, “Please do not kill me, Oh kindman ! I will help you.” Haria stopped. …(9)… he was surprised that the hen spoke, he asked, “How can you help me ?” “If you…(10)… my life, I will lay a golden egg for you everyday,” said the hen. Haria’s eyes …(11)… in delight. Haria was surprised to hear this promise. “A golden egg ! That too everyday! But why should I believe you? You might be lying,” said Haria. “If I do not lay a golden egg tomorrow, you can kill me,” said the hen. After this promise, Haria spared the hen and …(12)… for the next day. The next morning Haria found a golden egg …(13)… outside his hut and the hen sitting beside it. “It is true! You really can lay a golden egg!” exclaimed Haria with great delight. He did not…(14)… this incident to any one, …(15)… that others would catch the hen.
Q(6) (1) dedicated (2) devote (3) enthusiastic (4) good (5) engrossed
Q(7) (1) feeling (2) sounding (3) dreaming (4) plotting (5) wondering
Q(8) (1) quit (2) surrendered (3) succeeded (4) won (5) managed
Q(9) (1) Finally (2) Though (3) Since (4) As (5) Because
Q(10) (1) forgive (2) leave (3) give (4) spare (5) consume
Q(11) (1) exclaimed (2) dazed (3) open (4) awakened (5) widened
Q(12) (1) remembered (2) starved (3) waited (4) rejoiced (5) looked
Q(13) (1) lying (2) forlorn (3) presented (4) hiding (5) secluded
Q(14) (1) seek (2) say (3) narrates (4) reveal (5) hide
Q(15) (1) fearing (2) selfish (3) concerning (4) citing (5) alarmedAnswers
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4) 1 (5) 2 (6) 1 (7) 5 (8) 3 (9) 4 10) 4 11) 5 12) 3 13) 1 14) 4 15) 1
Q1. IP address contains ……….. bits.
(1) 8 bits (2)16 bits (3) 32 bits (4) 40 bits (5) None of these
Q2. Which key is used to indent a paragraph in MS word ?
(1) Shift (2) tab (3) Ctrl (4) Esc (5) None of these
Q3. Which is the example of spread sheet ?
(1) MS word (2) MS excel (3) Power point (4) MS Access (5) None of these
Q4. Name of the executable file of MS word is-
(1) MS Word (2) MS Word .exe (3) Win Word (4) Win Word.exe (5) None of these
Q5. Which disk contains permanent magnetic disk ?
(1) CD (2) DVD (3) HDD (4) BRD (5) None of these
Q6._________ is the process of finding and removing errors in software code.
(1) Debugging (2) Compiling (3) Testing (4) Running (5) None of these
Q7. ____________ are viruses that are triggered by the passage of time or on a certain date.
(1) Boot-sector viruses (2) Macro viruses (3) Time bombs (4) Worms (5) None of these
Q8. Linux is a (n)______ ______ operating system.
(1) open-source (2) Microsoft (3) Windows (4) Mac (5) None of these
Q9. What is a backup?
(1) Restoring the information backup (2) An exact copy of a system’s information
(3) The ability to get a system up and running in the event of a system crash or failure
(4) All of these (5) None of these
Q10. Which of the following places the common data elements in order from smallest to largest
(1) character, file, record, field, database (2) character, record, field, database, file
(3) character, field, record, file, database (4) Bit, byte, character, record, field, file, database,
(5) None of these
Q11. What is the file extension of Ms-Word document?
1) Dot 2) Doc 3) Dom 4) Txt 5) None of these
Q12. The vast network of computers that connects millions of people all over the world is called—
1) LAN 2) Web 3) Hypertext 4) Internet 5) None of these
Q13.________ is a primary key that also appears in another file.
1) Physical key 2) Primary key 3) Foreign key 4) Logical key 5) None of these
Q14. The software component of an export system that draws conclusion is the
1) User interface 2) Database 3) Inference engine 4) I/O controller 5) Model Base
Q15.________ is an invalid type of database key.
1) Structured primary key 2) Atomic primary key 3) Primary key 4) Composite primary key 5) None of these
Q16. The OSI model is divided into_______ processes called layers.
(1) five (2) six (3) seven (4) eight (5) None of these
Q17. System software is the set of programs that enables your computer’s hardware devices and______ software to work together.
(1) management (2) processing (3) utility (4) application (5) None of these
Q18. ________ are specially designed computer chips which reside inside other devices, such as your car or your electronic thermostat.
(1) Servers (2) Embedded computers (3) Robotic computers (4) Mainframes (5) None of these
Q19. The following are all computing devices , except………
(1) notebook computers (2) cellular telephones (3) digital scanners (4) personal digital assistants (5) None of these
Q20. In a ring topology , the computer in possession of the______ can trasmit data
(1) packet (2) data (3) access method (4) token (5) None of these
1. (3) 2. (2) 3. (2) 4. (4) 5. (3) 6. (1) 7. (3) 8. (1) 9. (4) 10. (3) 11. (2) 12. (4) 13. (3) 14. (3) 15. (1) 16. (3) 17. (4) 18. (2) 19. (3) 20. (4)