Directions—(Q. 1–5) Study the following graph carefully to answer the questions—
The following Bar graph gives the number of products manufactured and sold by a company over the years.
2004 to 2009 (Value in Thousand).
Q1. What is the difference in the number of products manufactured by the Company in the year 2009 and 2008 ?
(1) 4000 (2) 5500 (3) 3500 (4) 4500 (5) None of these
Q2. The number of products sold by the company in the year 2004 is what per cent of the number of products manufactured by it in that year ? (Rounded off to two digits after decimal)
(1) 71•43 (2) 67•51 (3) 81•67 (4) 56•29 (5) None of these
Q3. What is the per cent increase in the number of products manufactured by the company in the year 2006 from the previous year ? (Rounded off to two digits after decimal)
(1) 19•25 (2) 33•33 (3) 10•45 (4) 42•66 (5) None of these
Q4. What is the respective ratio of the number of products not sold by the company in the year 2007 to those not sold in the year 2005 ?
(1) 3 : 1 (2) 6 : 5 (3) 1 : 3 (4) 5 : 6 (5) None of these
Q5. What is the average number of products manufactured by the company over all the years together ?
(1) 36550 (2) 39480 (3) 41220 (4) 43330 (5) 34420
Directions—(Q. 6–10) Study the following graph carefully to answer the questions that follow—
The following line graph gives distance (in km) travelled by five different trucks in a day.
Q6. What is the respective ratio of the distance travelled by Truck A to the distance travelled by Truck D?
(1) 17 : 19 (2) 11 : 15 (3) 19 : 17 (4) 15 : 11 (5) None of these
Q7. What is the average distance travelled by all the Trucks together ?
(1) 510 km (2) 515 km (3) 425 km (4) 475 km (5) None of these
Q8. If Truck C covered the given distance at the average speed of 55 km/hr, what was the time taken by it to cover this distance?
(1) 12 hours (2) 10 hours (3) 8 hours (4) 6 hours (5) None of these
Q9. The distance travelled by Truck A is approximately what per cent of the total distance travelled by Truck E and C together ?
(1) 44 (2) 50 (3) 52 (4) 58 (5) 55
Q10. If the time taken by Truck B to cover the given distance was 8 hours, what was the average speed of the truck ?
(1) 51•75 km/hr (2) 45•25 km/hr (3) 52•25 km/hr (4) 43•75 km/hr (5) None of these
1. (5) Difference = 52500 – 47500 = 5000
2. (1) Required percentage = 25/35 * 100 = 71.43%
3. (5) Required percentage = (42.5 – 37.5)/37.5 * 100 = 13.33%
4. (3) Required ratio = (45 – 42.5) : (37.5 – 30) = 1 : 3
5. (4) Required average = (35000 + 37500 + 45000 + 47500 + 52500)/6 = 43330 (approx).
6. (3) Required ratio = 475 : 425 = 19 : 17
7. (5) Total distance travelled by all trucks = 475 + 350 + 550 + 425 + 525 = 2325 km
Average distance = 2325/5 = 465 km .
8. (2) Time taken by truck C = 550/55 = 10 hours.
9. (1) Required percentage = 475/(550 + 525) *100 = 44% (approx).
10. (4) Speed of truck B = 350/8 = 43.75 km/hr
Directions (1-5): In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
a. All pencils are pens. b. Some pens are syrups. c. All syrups are needles. d. Some needles are syringes.
I. Some needles are pens. II. Some pens are pencils. III. Some syringes are needles. IV. Some needles are syrups.
(1) None follows (2) Only I and II follow (3) Only I, II and III follow (4) Only II, III and IV follow (5) All follow
a. All dusters are bins. b. All bins are sepals. c. No sepal is a root. d. All roots are flowers.
I. No flower is a bin. II. No duster is a root. III. All dusters are sepals. IV. All flowers are roots.
(1) Only I and II follow (2) Only III follow (3) Only I, II and III follow (4) All follow (5) None of these
a. All bulbs are lamps. b. All lamps are stands. c. Some stands are pens. d. Some pens are benches.
I. Some benches are bulbs. II. Some lamps are benches. III. Some pens are bulbs. IV. Some pens are lamps.
(1) None follows (2) Only I and II follow (3) Only II and IV follow (4) Only III and IV follow (5) Only I, II and IV follow
a. Some rulers are erasers. b. All erasers are metals. c. Some metals are papers. d. All papers are bands.
I. Some bands are rulers. II. Some erasers are bands. III. Some papers are rulers. IV. Some metals are rulers.
(1) Only I and III follow (2) Only I and II follow (3) Only II and III follow (4) Only II and IV follow (5) None of these
a. Some houses are beads. b. Some beads are cycles. c. Some cycles are tubes. d. Some tubes are rains.
I. Some tubes are beads. II. Some cycles are houses. III. No bead is tube. IV. Some rains are cycles.
(1) Only I follows (2) Only either I or III follows (3) Only I and II follow (4) Only either I or III and IV follow (5) None of these
Directions (6-10): Below is given a passage followed by several possible inferences which can be drawn from the facts stated in the passage. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity. Mark answer
(1) if the inference is “definitely true”, ie it properly follows from the statement of facts given.
(2) if the inference is “probably true” though not “definitely true” in the light of the facts given.
(3) if the “data are inadequate”, ie from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false.
(4) if the inference is “probably false” though not “definitely false” in the light of the facts given.
(5) if the inference is “definitely false”, ie it cannot possibly be drawn from the facts given for it contradicts the given facts.
A study conducted by a committee, titled “World Class in India”, found the Indian bicycle industry to be globally competitive. It projected the demand to grow from 117.2 lakh units in 2009-10 to 129.5 lakh units in 2010-11. However, all this has changed drastically post-imposition of excise duty. According to All India Cycle Manufacturers’ Association (A1CMA). the production figure would be in the vicinity of 100 lakh units. It says that against the net gain of excise duty of Rs 50 crore. the Government has lost 29 lakh bicycles. Even if one assumes that the production is less by 29 lakh units, the Government will lose Rs 122 per bicycle, which is the excise duty paid actually on inputs by manufacturers. Thus the Government has lost Rs 35 crore. Not to forget the losses in terms of 2 per cent central sales tax (CST) and the state taxes which vary from 4-8 per cent. Assuming an average of 6 per cent states tax and 2 per cent CST, the Government has lost another Rs 25 crore.
Q6. In the total bargain it seems that there will be a net loss of Rs 10 crore to the government.
Q7. There will be no decline in domestic demand of bicycle in 2010-11.
Q8. AICMA acts as a liaisoning body with the government to highlight the industry’s problem.
Q9. The reason for India’s export success in the past is the large home base ofthe bicycle.
Q10. Imposition of excise duty has unnerved the Indian bicycle industry.Answers
1. (5) 2. (5) 3. (1) 4. (5) 5. (2) 6. 2 7. 4 8. 4 9. 1 10. 3
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-8): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
The Government seems to be in right earnest to ensure more (1) in governance. The Prime Minister’s announcement that his Government is (2) drafting legislation to establish the citizen’s right to information is indeed welcome. Though the talk on the right to information is not new, we may (3) the bill to be brought early this time. The previous Government had set up a high-level committee to prepare a draft bill. But nothing has been heard about the matter since, (4) the committee did quite some work. The issue, however, has come to such a pass that a solution cannot be (5) further. Sunlight is the best disinfectant, a foreign judge once said, while (6) the unwarranted secrecy in an administrative system. When those in authority know that people have the right to ask questions and the government is under the (7) to provide them with answers, (8) of authority, or of public finances, for personal or party ends is less likely to happen.
Q1. (a) strictness (b) rudeness (c) leniency (d) economy (e) transparency
Q2. (a) personally (b) busy (c) not (d) reluctantly (e) absolutely
Q3. (a) expect (b) wait (c) try (d) frustrate (e) appeal
Q4. (a) even (b) as (c) because (d) until (e) though
Q5. (a) found (b) expected (c) delayed (d) looked (e) longed
Q6. (a) nurturing (b) criticising (c) demanding (d) appreciating (e) upholding
Q7. (a) pretention (b) affect (c) substance (d) obligation (e) property
Q8. (a) misuse (b) governance (c) dishonour (d) curbing (e) breach
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 9-20): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below. Certain words/phrases are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.
In the second week of August 1998, just a few days after the incidents of bombing the US embassies in Nairobi and Dar-es-Salaam, a high-powered, brain-storming session was held near Washington D.C., to discuss various aspects of terrorism. The meeting was attended by ten of America’s leading experts in various fields such as germ and chemical warfare, public health, disease control and also by the doctors and the law enforcing officers. Being asked to describe the horror of possible bio-attack, one of the experts narrated the following gloomy scenario.
A culprit in a crowded business centre or in a busy shopping mall of a town empties a test tube containing some fluid, which in turn creates an unseen cloud of germ of a dreaded disease like anthrax capable of inflicting a horrible death within 5 days on anyone who inhales it. At first 500, or so victims feel that they have mild influenza which may recede after a day or two. Then the symptoms return again and their lungs start filling with fluid. They rush to local hospitals for treatment, but the panic-stricken people may find that the medicare services run quickly out of drugs due to excessive demand. But no one would be able to realise that a terrorist attack has occurred. One cannot deny the possibility that the germ involved would be of contagious variety capable of causing an epidermic. The meeting concluded that such attacks, apart from causing immediate human tragedy, would have dire long-term effects on the political and social fabric of a country by way of ending people’s trust on the competence of the government.
The experts also said that the bombs used in Kenya and Tanzania were of the old-fashion variety and involved quantities of high explosives, but new terrorism will prove to be more deadly and probably more elusive than hijacking an aeroplane or a gelignite of previous decades. According to Bruce Hoffman, an American specialist on political violence, old terrorism generally had a specific manifesto- to overthrow a colonial power or the capitalist system and so on. These terrorists were not shy about planting a bomb or hijacking an aircraft and they set some limit to their brutality. Killing so many innocent people might turn their natural supporters off. Political terrorists want a lot of people watching but not a lot of people dead. “Old terrorism sought to change the world while the new sort is often practised by those who believe that the world has gone beyond redemption”, he added.
Hoffman says, “New terrorism has no long-term agenda but is ruthless in its short-term intentions. It is often just a cacophonous cry of protest or an outburst of religious intolerance or a protest against the West in general and the US in particular. Its perpetrators may be religious fanatics or diehard opponent of a government and see no reason to show restraint. They are simply intent on inflicting the maximum amount of pain on the victim.”
Q9. In the context of the passage, the culprit’s act of emptying a test tube containing some fluid can be classified as
(a) a terrorist attack (b) an epidemic of a dreaded disease (c) a natural calamity
(d) panic created by an imaginary event (e) None of these
Q10. In what way would the new terrorism be different from that of the earlier years?
More dangerous and less baffling B. More hazardous for victims C. Less complicated for terrorists
(a) A and C only (b) B and C only (c) A and B only (d) All the three (e) None of these
Q11. What was the immediate provocation for the meeting held in August 1998?
(a) the insistence of America’s leading (b) the horrors of possible bio-attacks
(c) a culprit’s heinous act of spreading germs (d) people’s lack of trust in the government
(e) None of these
Q12. What could be the probable consequences of bio- attacks, as mentioned in the passage?
(a) A only (b) B only (c) C only (d) A and B only (e) All the three
Q13. The author’s purpose of writing the above passage seems to explain
(a) the methods of containing terrorism (b) the socio-political turmoil in African countries
(c) the deadly strategies adopted by modern terrorists (d) reasons for killing innocent people
(e) the salient features of terrorism of yesteryears
Q14. According to the author of the passage, the root cause of terrorism is
socio-political changes in countries
the enormous population growth
(a) A only (b) B only (c) C only (d) A and B only (e) All the three
Q15. The phrase “such attacks”, as mentioned in the last sentence of the second paragraph, refers to
(a) the on slaught of an epidemic as a natural calamity (b) bio-attack on political people in the government
(c) attack aimed at damaging the reputation of the government (d) bio-attack monoeuvred by unscrupulous elements
(e) None of these
Q16. The sole objective of the old terrorism, according to Hoffman, was to
(a) plant bombs to kill innocent people (b) remove colonial power or capitalist system
(c) make people realise the incompetence of the government (d) give a setback to socio-political order
(e) None of these
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 17-18): Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
(a) discouraging (b) disgusting (c) bright (d) tragic (e) versatile
(a) loud (b) melodious (c) sonorous (d) harsh (e) distant
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 19-20): Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
(a) opponents (b) followers (c) sympathisers (d) leaders (e) manoeuvres
(a) harmful (b) fatal (c) destructive (d) baffling (e) obstructing
1. e 2. b 3. a 4. e 5. c 6. b 7. d 8. a 9. a 10. b 11. e 12. e 13. c 14. a 15. d 16. d 17. c 18. b 19. e 20. d
Q1. What do we call the HTML codes written in a text editor to make web pages?
(1) Source code (2) HTML tags (3) Source elements (4) Roots (5) None of these
Q2. EEPROM permits?
(1) Read Permission only (2) read and byte erase permission (3) Read, byte erase and byte write operations
(4) Read, byte erase, byte write and chip erase operations (5) None of these
Q3. The process of identifying specific rows and columns so that so that certain columns and rows are always visible on the screen is called:
(1) Freezing (2) locking (3) Selecting (4) fixing (5) none
Q4. Where can you find the horizontal split bar on MS Word screen?
(1) On the left of horizontal scroll bar (2) On the right of horizontal scroll bar (3) On the top of vertical scroll bar
(4) On the bottom of vertical scroll bar (5) None of these
Q5. A microprocessor is generally?
(1) Single chip SSI (2) Single chip MSI (3) Single Chip LSI (4) Both 1and 2 (5) None of these
Q6. What is a portion of a document in which you set certain page formatting options?
(1) Page (2) Document (3) Section (4) Page Setup (5) None
Q7. XML stands for-
(1) Xtreme Markup Language (2) Extensible Markup Language (3) X-Markup Language
(4) Xpensive Markup Language (5) None of these
Q8. Lycos is known as-
(1) website (2) internet radio (3) search engine (4) messenger (5) None of these
Q9. _____ is when the more power – hungry components such as the monitor and the hard drive are put to idle.
(1) Hibernation (2) Power down (3) Standby mode (4) The Shut down procedure (5) None of these
Q10. A human being who writes programs, operate and maintain computer is known as-
(1) live ware (2) freeware (3) spyware (4) shareware (5) None of these
Q11. WWW uses ____ protocol.
(1) FTP (2) HTTP (3) SMTP (4) Telnet (5) None of these
Q12. .com is related to-
(1) Personal Site (2) Art (3) Organization (4) Commercial Organization (5) None of these
Q13. Time – sharing systems require:
(1) a number of terminals connected to a system (2) memory protection mechanism to prevent a job’s instructions
(3) job status preservation mechanism to preserve a job’s status s (4) an alarm clock mechanism to send an interrupt
(5) All of the above
Q14. Computers use the ____language to process data.
(1) processing (2) kilobyte (3) binary (4) representational (5) None of these
Q15. By default, your document will print in __ mode
(1) landscape (2) portrait (3) page setup (4) print view (5) None of these
Q16. Track ball is _______.
(1) Programming devices (2) Pointing device (3) Output device (4) Software device (5) Printing device
Q17. What is the meaning of page break up –
(1) Page of document is break into small parts. (2) Next part of the document will be started on the new page.
(3) Page of the document is break in small – 2 sentences. (4) Page of the document is break into small paragraph
(5) None of these
Q18. _____ is a procedure that requires users to enter an identification code and a matching password
(1) paging (2) logging on (3) time sharing (4) Multitasking (5) None of these
Q19. Antivirus software is an example of…………………
(1) business software (2) an operating system (3) a security utility (4) an office suite (5) None of these
Q20. Computer programs ‘ are written in a high-level programming language; however, the human-readable version of a program is called…………..
(1) cache (2) instruction set (3) source code (4) word size (5) None of these
Q21. Which of the following refers to the memory in your computer?
(1) RAM (2) DSL (3) USB (4) LAN (5) CPU
Q22. Information travels between components on the motherboard through
(1) Flash memory (2) CMOS (3) Bays (4) Buses (5) Peripherals
Q23. UNIVAC is an example of:
(1) 1st generation computer (2) 2nd generation computer (3) 3rd generation computer (4) 4th generation computer
(5) None of these
Q24. The __ is the ‘Administrative’ section of the computer system :
(1) input unit (2) control unit (3) Memory unit (4) central processing unit (5) Arithmetic logic unit
Q25. A series of instructions that tells a computer what to do and how to do it is called a-
(1) Program (2) command (3) user response (4) processor (5) None of these
1.1 2. 3 3. 3 4. 4 5. 1 6. 4 7. 2 8. 4 9. 3 10. 5 11. 2 12. 4 13. 5 14. 3 15. 2 16. 2 17. 2 18. 2 19. 3 20.3 21. 1 22. 4 23. 1 24. 4 25. 1